CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for class 9 Social Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hrs .
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

Question 2.
Identify what does this political symbol in the picture given below typically represent? (1)

(a) A new beginning
(b) Knowledge
(c) Strength and resilience
(d) Wealth and prosperity
Answer:
(b) Knowledge

Question 3.
France declared war on Prussia and Austria in April 1792 because (1)
(a) Louis XVI refused to sign the Constitution
(b) France wanted to expand its territory across Europe
(c) The National Assembly suspected foreign intervention in French affairs
(d) Prussia and Austria had already attacked French provinces
Answer:
(c) The National Assembly suspected foreign intervention in French affairs

Question 4.
“News of the revolutionary uprising of 25 th October, 1917 , reached the village the following day and was greeted with enthusiasm; to the peasants it meant free land and an end to the war.” Who saw the October Revolution as a symbol of hope and change according to this quote? (1)
(a) The Bolshevik military leaders
(b) The urban working class
(c) The Russian peasants in villages
(d) The aristocratic landowners
Answer:
(c) The Russian peasants in villages

Question 5.
“Russia’s economy at the beginning of the 20th century was largely agricultural with emerging industry.” Explain this statement with two examples. (2)
Or
“Political parties in Russia before 1914 faced many challenges.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
The given statement can be explained by the following examples:-

• At the start of the 20th century, 85% of Russia’s population were farmers, higher than in Europe.
• Russia was a major grain exporter, while industry grew around St Petersburg and Moscow, with factories expanding due to railways and foreign investment.

Or
The given statement can be explained by the following

• Before 1914, all political parties in Russia were illegal.
• The Social Democrats worked secretly with workers, while the Socialist Revolutionaries focused on peasants’ rights, demanding noble land be given to peasants, showing different approaches within the socialist movement.

Question 6.
‘Emerging social groups in eighteenth century Europe played a crucial role in promoting new ideas of equality and freedom.’ Support the statement with suitable examples. (3)
Or
‘The meeting of the Estates General in 1789 became a turning point in French history,’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
In eighteenth-century Europe, the educated middle class- merchants, manufacturers and professionals emerged as a key force promoting equality and freedom. Influenced by Enlightenment thinkers like Locke and Rousseau, they challenged hereditary privileges, advocated merit-based positions and spread ideas through books, pamphlets and salons, shaping revolutionary movements.
Or
The meeting of the Estates General in 1789 became a turning point in French history as the meeting exposed deep inequalities and the Third Estate, despite being the majority, was denied equal voting rights. Their demand for individual voting reflected democratic ideals, sparking resistance that eventually led to the French Revolution.

Question 7.
‘The birth of the Weimar Republic in Germany marked a significant political shift, yet it was met with resentment and distrust.’ Analyse this statement with suitable reasons (5)
Or
‘Once in power, the Nazis implemented a dangerous racial ideology rooted in notions of purity, conquest and elimination.’ Highlight the key components of this ideology.
Answer:
The statement can be analysed by the following reasons:-

• The Weimar Republic was established in Germany after its defeat in the First World War and the abdication of the emperor. It aimed to introduce a democratic constitution with equal voting rights, including for women and a federal structure.
• However, the republic emerged in a time of national humiliation due to the harsh Treaty of Versailles. The treaty forced Germany to accept full responsibility for the war, lose significant territories and colonies and pay heavy reparations.
• Its army was demilitarised and the economically vital Rhineland was occupied. These terms not only crippled Germany economically but also wounded its national pride.
• As a result, many Germans blamed the Weimar Republic for accepting such a humiliating treaty.
• This deep resentment led to widespread political instability and a lack of faith in the new democratic system.

Or
The key components of the Nazi ideology were

• The Nazi worldview promoted a radical notion that the earth belongs only to those with the strength and courage to conquer and tame it, privileging the so called “Nordic Aryans” as the rightful heirs of territory and supremacy
• Their imperial ambition extended to dismissing smaller nations as insignificant in global power plays.
• This ideology translated into the systematic elimination of anyone deemed “undesirable”-including mentally or physically disabled Germans under the euthanasia program, and broad-scale persecution of Jews, Romani people, blacks, Poles and Russians, considered racially inferior.
• These groups were subjected to segregation, forced labor or genocide, ultimately exemplified by the Holocaust.
• The Nazis fused pseudo-scientific racism with territorial expansionism to justify their horrifying policies.

Question 8.
Read the given text and answer the following questions.
On 7th February, 1794, Robespierre made a speech at the Convention, which was then carried by the newspaper Le Moniteur Universel. Here is an extract from it.” To establish and consolidate democracy, to achieve the peaceful rule of constitutional laws, we must first finish the war of liberty against tyranny. We must annihilate the enemies of the republic at home and abroad or else we shall perish. In time of Revolution a democratic government may rely on terror.
Terror is nothing but justice, swift, severe and inflexible and is used to meet the most urgent needs of the fatherland. To curb the enemies of liberty through terror is the right of the founder of the Republic.”
(i) How Robespierre justified the use of terror as a democratic measure? (1)
(ii) How Robespierre enforced his policies during the Reign of Terror? (1)
(iii) What were the consequences of Robespierre’s policies during the Reign of Terror? (2)
Answer:
(i) Robespierre justified the use of terror as necessary for rapidly controlling threats to the Republic. He believed terror was a just and decisive means to establish and protect democracy during turbulent times.

(ii) Robespierre enforced policies through a revolutionary tribunal, guillotining enemies, imposing price controls, rationing food and mandating cultural changes.

(iii) Robespierre’s policies during the Reign of Terror resulted in widespread arrests, executions by guillotine, economic controls such as price ceilings and rationing and cultural reforms. These measures charged dispute and ultimately led to his own downfall and execution in 1794.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map.
A. An axis power in the Second World War. (1)
B. An allied power in first World War (1)

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
What does the variation in temperature across regions in India indicate about its climate? (1)
(a) India has a uniform climate throughout the year.
(b) The climate of India is unpredictable and chaotic.
(c) India experiences a monsoon-type climate with regional variations.
(d) Only northern India faces temperature extremes.
Answer:
(c) India experiences a monsoon-type climate with regional variations.

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes. (1)

River	Origin	Key Feature
Yamuna	Yamunotri Glacier, Himalayas	Joins Ganga at Allahabad as right tributary
?	Nepal Himalaya	Causes annual floods but enriches suil
?	Peninsular Uplands (semi-arid)	Shorter course, carries less water

(a) Ghaghara & Chambal
(b) Gandak & Kosi
(c) Ghaghara & Son
(d) Kosi & Betwa
Answer:
(a) Ghaghara & Chambal

Question 12.
The Indian desert lies towards the Western margins of the Aravali hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season. Soon after they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea. Luni is the only large river in this region. Which of the following is a significant natural limitation of the Indian desert region? (1)
(a) Dense vegetation and heavy rainfall
(b) Presence of perennial rivers and fertile soil
(c) Scarce water availability due to low rainfall and disappearing streams
(d) High population density and industrial development
Answer:
(c) Scarce water availability due to low rainfall and disappearing streams

Question 13.
Based on the characteristics of Indian rivers, which of the following statements is most accurate? (1)
(a) Himalayan rivers are peremial and originate from snow and rain, with long courses and gorges.
(b) Peninsular rivers are peremial and originate mainly from the snow-capped Himalayas.
(c) Himalayan rivers mostly dry up in summer due to lack of rainfall.
(d) Peninsular rivers cut through mountains creating deep gorges similar to Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
(a) Himalayan rivers are perennial and originate from snow and rain, with long courses and gorges.

Question 14.
The Sundarbans Delta is formed by the confluence of which rivers? (1)
(a) Ganga and Yamuna
(b) Brahmaputra and Godavari
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna
(d) Mahanadi and Krishna
Answer:
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna

Question 15.
Which of the following months are the coldest months in the Northern part of India? (1)
(a) January and February
(b) November and December
(c) December and January
(d) September and October
Answer:
(b) November and December

Question 16.
India’s population density varies greatly across states, with Bihar having 1,102 persons per sq km and Arunachal Pradesh only. Explain the gengraphical and social reasons for this uneven population distribution. (2)
Answer:
Population density in India varies due to geographical factors like terrain and climate. Fertile plains like Bihar attract dense populations because of better farming opportunities. In contrast, mountainous or forested regions like Arunachal Pradesh have sparse populations due to difficult living conditions and less infrastructure. Social factors like employment opportunities and historical settlement patterns also influence this uneven distribution.

Question 17.
Person Q plans to start an agriculture-based business in India and wants to understand the climate’s influence on farming. Explain how latitude, altitude and wind patterns affect India’s climate and why these factors are important for agricultural planning. (5)
Or
“Climatic controls such as latitude, altitude, and continentality greatly influence the climate of a region.” Explain how these factors affect temperature and rainfall patterns in India, supporting the importance of understanding these controls for agriculture and living conditions.
Answer:
India’s climate is influenced by its latitude, altitude, and wind patterns, which are crucial for agriculture in the following ways
The Tropic of Cancer divides India into tropical and subtropical zones, affecting temperature and crop suitability.
The Himalayas to the north create a barrier that blocks cold Central Asian winds, resulting in milder winters, favourable for crops. Seasonal wind changes, especially the southwest monsoon, bring essential rainfall from the warm Indian Ocean, vital for farming. The high-pressure system in winter causes dry, cold winds, leading to a dry season. Understanding these climate factors helps plan crop cycles and irrigation, ensuring better yields and minimising risks from drought or frost.
Or
Latitude affects climate as solar energy decreases from the equator toward the poles, causing temperature to drop; hence northern India is cooler than the south. Altitude also plays a role, as temperature decreases with height, making hilly areas cooler, especially in summer. Continentality refers to how distance from the sea affects climate; inland areas experience extreme temperatures-hot summers and cold winters-due to reduced sea influence.

Coastal areas have moderate climates influenced by ocean currents and onshore winds. Relief features like mountains act as barriers to winds, affecting rainfall distribution-windward sides get heavy rain, while leeward sides remain dry. Understanding these climatic controls is vital for planning agriculture, water resources and settlement, ensuring better adaptation to local conditions.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
“The Indian landmass has a Central location between East and the West Asia. India is a Southward extension of the Asian continent. The trans-Indian ocean routes, which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia, provide a strategic central location to India. Note that the Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the Western coast and with South-East and East Asia from the Eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has and indeed, it is India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean.”
(i) What makes India’s coastline unique in the Indian Ocean? (1)
(ii) How does the Deccan Peninsula contribute to India’s strategic location? (1)
(iii) Why is India’s location signiticant for trans-Indian Ocean routes? (2)
Answer:
(i) India’s coastline is unique due to its extensive length and central position in the Indian Ocean. Thus, justifying the ocean’s name after India.
(ii) The Deccan Peninsula projects into the Indian Ocean, giving India a central position for controlling sea routes. It enables maritime links with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the west coast and South east and East Asia from the east coast.
(iii) India’s central location between East and West Asia is significant as it makes India a crucial hub for trans-Indian Ocean routes. Thus, enhancing its strategic importance in trade.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols.
I. (a) A part of the Peninsular plateau lying North of the Narmada river, forming a major area of the Central Highlands.
Or
(b) Coastal area receiving more than 400 cm of rainfall
II. Any two of the following,
(i) A neighbouring country sharing boundary with Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
(ii) Capital of Assam
(iii) The largest Peninsular river rising from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra

Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statements about elections and democracy are true?
I. Elections are essential in large communities for people to choose their representatives.
II. A democracy can exist without elections if representatives are chosen based on age and experience.
III. Elections provide a mechanism for people to replace representatives they dislike.
IV. Without elections, it is difficult to ensure representatives rule according to people’s wishes.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(c) I, III and IV

Question 21.
The cartoon depicts a government official labeled “Cabinet List” sitting calmly while a large crowd struggles to get in behind a curtain marked “Addition and Subtraction.” This suggests that the process of selecting members for the cabinet involves complex balancing and compromises. Which of the following best explains the cartoon’s message about government formation?

(a) Formation of a coalition government requiring negotiation and compromises.
(b) A single-party majority government with straightforward appointments.
(c) A dictatorship where leaders choose cabinet members arbitrarily.
(d) A government formed purely based on seniority without political strategy.
Answer:
(a) Formation of a coalition government requiring negotiation and compromises.

Question 22.
Consider the following case and choose the correct option.
After decades of apartheid, South Africa transitioned to a democratic government by repealing discriminatory laws and including all racial groups in the political process. How was this peaceful transition possible according to Nelson Mandela?
(a) By continuing strict repression o, opposition groups.
(b) By accepting the inherent goodness and willingness to forgive among former enemies.
(c) By excluding the previous ruling party from any political participation.
(d) By enforcing segregation through new laws protecting minority rights.
Answer:
(b) By accepting the inherent goodness and willingness to forgive among former enemies.

Question 23.
Assertion (A) Rights are necessary for the sustenance of democracy.
Reason (R) Rights allow people to vote, express opinions freely and participate in political activities.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
Mention two reasons why the Indian judiciary ‘s considered one of the most powerful institutions in Indian democracy.
Answer:
Indian judiciary is considered one of the most powerful institutions in Indian democracy because of the following reasons
A Judge can be removed only by an impeachment motion. Indian judiciary is independent of legislative and executive control.

Question 25.
‘Democracy is often criticised for its flaws.’ Name any common arguments against democracy and explain why, despite these flaws, democracy is still considered a better form of government compared to others.
Answer:
Common arguments against democracy include frequent leadership changes causing instability and delays in decision-making due toconsultations. Despite these flaws, democracy is still considered a better form of government compared to others as it allows people to participate in decisions, ensuring their voices are heard, making it better than authoritarian alternatives.

Question 26.
‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ Support this statement with suitable arguments related to Indian elections.
Answer:
Indian elections are held regularly, allowing peacefull transfer of power and political stability. The country is divided into constituencies where people elect representatives, ensuring every vote has equal value. This fair process lets citizens express their opinions lawfully, reducing conflicts. The clear election rules maintain order and citizen participation builds trust in democracy, promoting peace and harmony among diverse groups in society.

Question 27.
‘Decision-making in a democracy involves many key functionaries working together.’ Explain this with reference to the process of implementing the Mandal Commission recommendations.
Or
‘Parliament plays a vital role in a democracy.’ Analyse this statement.
Answer:
In a democracy, major decisions involve several authorities working together. The Mandal Commission report’s implementation is a good example in the following ways
The President, as the highest formal authority, supported the decision by addressing Parliament.
The Prime Minister, as head of government, played a key role by informing Parliament about the decision.
The Union Cabinet formally approve the recommendations.
The decision then moved to the Ministry of Personnel, where officials drafted the Office Memorandum.
This shows how decisions are not made by one person but require coordination among various leaders and departments. It reflects democratic processes where elected representatives, ministers, and officials collectively make and implement policies, ensuring transparency and accountability in governance.
Or
The given statement can be analysed by the following
Parliament is the supreme authority in a democracy, representing the people through elected members.
It is responsible for making laws like creating new ones, changing or abolishing old ones. This law-making power ensures that the government functions within a legal framework. Parliament also controls the government by requiring its support for decision-making; without Parliament’s confidence, the government cannot rule.
Moreover, Parliament controls public money, approving government spending to ensure transparency and accountability. It acts as a forum for discussion and debate on national policies and public issues, allowing diverse opinions to be heard.

Question 28.
Read the given text and answer the following questions. (1+2+1=4)
The Constitution says that the government shall not deny to any person in India equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws. It means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. This is called the rule of law. Rule of law is the foundation of any democracy. It means that no person is above the law. There cannot be any distinction between a political leader, government official and an ordinary citizen.
Every citizen, from the Prime Minister to a small farmer in a remote village, is subjected to the same laws. No person can legally claim any special treatment or privilege just because he or she happens to be an important person.
(i) Explain what is meant by equality before the law.
(ii) State any two key principles of the rule of law in India.
(iii) Why is the rule of law considered the foundation of democracy?
Answer:
(i) Equality before the law means that all individuals, regardless of their social status or position, are subject to the same laws. No person can claim special treatment or exemption, ensuring fairness and justice for everyone.

(ii) Two key principles of the rule of law in India are

• The rule of law ensures that every person is treated equally before the law without any discrimination.
• No one, including political leaders or government officials, is above the law or entitled to special privileges.

(iii) The rule of law is the foundation of democracy because it guarantees fairness, accountability and equal rights. It prevents misuse of power by ensuring that laws apply equally to everyone, maintaining trust and order in society.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
India’s Green Revolution is an example of how productivity can be increased by (1)
(a) Increasing the amount of land available for farming
(b) Using improved production technologies and knowledge
(c) Employing more laborers in the agricultural sector
(d) Relying only on traditional farming methods
Answer:
(b) Using improved production technologies and knowledge

Question 30.
Which of the following best explains how poverty is measured in recent times in India?Choose the correct option as the answer(1)
(a) Poverty is now measured only by the income levels of individuals.
(b) Only food consumption and savings are considered while identifying poverty.
(c) Poverty is identified through income and consumption, along with indicators like health, education and standard of living.
(d) Poverty is measured solely on the basis of employment status and housing.
Answer:
(c) Poverty is identified through income and consumption, along with indicators like health, education and standard of living.

Question 31.
Which of the following contributed most significantly to India avoiding famines after the 1970s? (1)
(a) Import of food grains from other countries
(b) Introduction of rationing during wartime
(c) Launch of the Green Revolution
(d) Decline in population growth
Answer:
(c) Launch of the Green Revolution

Question 32.
Foodgrains in buffer stock are procured by the government through which of the following? (1)
(a) Food Corporation of India
(b) State government
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Food Corporation of India

Question 33.
Person X is explaining the approach used in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (NMPI). Which of the following statements would best support X’s explanation? (1)
(a) Poverty is identified only through the monthly income of individuals and their spending habits.
(b) NMPI measures poverty using a set of indicators across health, education and standard of living dimensions.
(c) The index only considers whether a household owns assets like vehicles or electronics.
(d) NMPI focuses only on food consumption and water availability to determine poverty levels.
Answer:
(b) NMPI measurés poverty using a set of indicators across health, education and standard of living dimensions.

Question 34.
Recognise and choose the option that correctly matches the health-related efforts and their outcomes in India. (1)

Answer:
(c) 2 1 3 4

Question 35.
Evaluate the significance of the poverty line in understanding and addressing poverty in a country.
Answer:
The poverty line helps identify individuals or families whose income or consumption falls below the minimum required to meet basic needs. It reflects the socio-economic conditions of a country and guides policymakers in framing targeted welfare schemes. As basic needs vary by time and place, the poverty line is adjusted accordingly, making it a crucial tool for measuring and addressing poverty effectively.

Question 36.
‘Ensuring food security is essential not only during normal times but also in the face of crises like natural disasters and pandemics.’ Justify the statement. (3)
Answer:
Ensuring food security is essential not only during normal times but also in the face of crises like natural disasters and pandemics so that people have access to sufficient food at all times. During crises like natural disasters or pandemics, food supply chains are disrupted, leading to hunger or starvation. The COVID-19 pandemic highlighted these vulnerabilities. Hence, a robust food security system is essential for protecting vulnerable populations and maintaining stability during emergencies, ensuring no one suffers due to lack of food.

Question 37.
Explain the different types of unemployment found in rural and urban areas of India.
Answer:
The different types of unemployment found in rural and urban areas of India are
In rural areas, seasonal unemployment occurs when agricultural workers cannot find jobs throughout the year.
Disguised unemployment happens when more people are engaged in a task than actually needed.
In urban areas, educated unemployment is common, where educated individuals cannot find jobs matching their qualifications.

Question 38.
A student studied how India ensures food availability even during natural calamities. Based on their research, they identified two key components of the government’s food security system that help prevent famine and support the poor. Explain these two components and their significance in ensuring food security in India.
Or
Discuss the positive and negative effects of rationing and food security programmes on India’s economy.
Answer:
India’s food security system relies on two key components: buffer stock and the Public Distribution System (PDS). These are as follows
The buffer stock consists of foodgrains like wheat and rice, procured by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) from surplus-producing farmers at a Minimum Support Price (MSP). These grains are stored in government granaries and are used to manage shortages during natural disasters or economic distress. The PDS distributes this food through around 5.5 lakh ration shops, also called Fair Price Shops, across the country. These shops sell essentials like foodgrains, sugar and kerosene at subsidised prices to families with ration cards. Each eligible family receives a fixed monthly quota of these items. This system not only supports the poor by making food affordable but also helps maintain food availability during crises.
Or
Rationing and food security programmes like the Public Distribution System (PDS), Integrated Child Development Services (ICD5) and Food-For-Work (FFW) have played a crucial role in India’s economy in the following ways:
On the positive side, these programmes ensure that vulnerable populations receive essential food supplies at subsidised rates, reducing hunger and malnutrition.

They also increase income for the poor through employment programmes, thereby improving food security and contributing to social stability.

However, rationing can sometimes lead to inefficiencies such as corruption, leakage of supplies and dependency on subsidies.
Additionally, excessive government intervention may discourage private sector participation in food distribution.
Thus, while these programmes support poverty alleviation and food security, they need continuous monitoring and reforms to minimise drawbacks and enhance effectiveness.