Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions
General Inshructions :
- The Question Paper contains 4 sections – A, B, C and D.
- Section A contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions for 20 marks.
- Section B contains 8 short answer type questions for 2 marks each.
- Section C contains 8 questions for 3 marks each.
- Section D contains 4 long answer type questions for 5 marks each.
- Internal Choice is given in the Paper. There is no overall choice.
Tine : 3 hours
Max. Marks : 80
SECTION – A
Question 1.
The dispute regarding the sharing of water resources between the State of Tamil Nadu and Kerala with respect to Mullaperiyar dam can be brought before the Supreme Court under the exercise of which jurisdiction?
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Original jurisdiction
(c) Appellate jurisdiction
(d) Judicial review
Answer:
(b) Original jurisdiction
Question 2.
The declining quality of judicial service and inability of judges to properly effectuate the stipulated judicial workload has been attributed to
(a) relatively lower salary.
(b) relatively early retirement age.
(c) enhanced retirement age.
(d) collegium model.
Answer:
(b) relatively early retirement age.
Question 3.
Which is a principle or a legal doctrine or a practice whereby a court can examine or review an exccutive or a legislative act?
(a) Judicial review
(b) Executive review
(c) Delegated legislation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Judicial review
Question 4.
An arbitration which is governed by parties themselves, without recourse to a formal arbitral institution are called
(a) Institutional arbitration
(b) Ad-hoc arbitration
(c) International arbitration
(d) Domestic arbitration
Answer:
(b) Ad-hoc arbitration
Question 5.
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 aims to combat acts of bribery and corruption of public servants- a term that has been given a fairly wide interpretation in the act. As per the legislation, an enquiry of corruption can be initiated against which of the following persons?
(a) Against the ex-Prime Minister of India accused of corruption in matters pertaining to international relations.
(b) Against the ex-Prime Minister of India accused of corruption in matters relating to internal security.
(c) Against any person who has been a member of either House of the Parliament.
(d) Against any member of the Parliament against whom allegation of corruption is raised for anything said or a vote given by him in the Parliament.
Answer:
(c) Against any person who has been a member of either House of the Parliament.
Question 6.
Which of the following definitions is the right definition of contract as per Section 2(h) of Contract Act? (1)
(a) Agreement enforceable by law
(b) Agreement ‘enforceable by morality
(c) Agreement enforceable by social relations
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Agreement enforceable by law
Question 7.
The concept of ‘duty of care’ evolved in the case of
(a) Rylands v, Fletcher
(b) MC Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Donoghue v. Stevenson
Question 8.
Assertion (A) Madam Pillai v. Badar Kali was a case law that determined the validity of oral transfer.
Reason (R) The Court held that the plaintiff acquired a title by way of oral transfer and she is entitled to the property though the instrument of sale was not registered.
Codes
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R)is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R)is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Question 9.
Geographical Indication (GI) tag is given as per the ……….
(a) Indian Copyright Act, 1957
(b) New Design Act, 2000
(c) Patent Act, 1970
(d) Geographical Indications (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
Answer:
(d) Geographical Indications (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
Question 10.
Where was the first Earth Summit for the ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ held?
(a) Rio de Janerio (1992), Brazil
(b) New York (2000), USA
(c) Dehradun (1992), India
(d) Johannesburg (2022), South Africa
Answer:
(a) Rio de Janerio (1992), Brazil
Question 11.
Assertion (A) limited liability partnership is different from a normal partnership.
Reason(R)it is a type of legal entity that combines the limited liability and flexibility of a partnership.
Codes
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reasòn (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct. explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Question 12.
‘A’ acquires a pistol to kill his arch business rival ‘ B’. ‘A’ keeps the loaded pistol in his pocket, but does nothing to kill ‘ B’.
(a) ‘A’ is guilty of a criminal act as he kept the loaded gun in his pocket.
(b) ‘A’ is guilty of a criminal act as there he acquired a pistol.
(c) ‘A’ is not guilty as he has made no attempt to kill ‘B’.
(d) ‘A’ is guilty because he had the intention to kill ‘B’.
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is not guilty as he has made no attempt to kill ‘ B’.
Question 13.
Which article prohibits human trafficking, beggar and forced labour?
(a) Árticle 22
(b) Article 23
(c) ‘ Article 24
(d) Article 25
Answer:
(b) Article 23
Question 14.
Who may file a complaint before the National Commission of Human Rights?
(a) Victim
(b) Relatives of the victim
(c) Court itself
(d) Either of these
Answer:
(d) Either of these
Question 15.
Assertion (A) The International Criminal Court (ICC) is a tribunal set up through the Rome Statute in 2002 with the purpose of prosecuting criminals for 4 major crimes.
Reason (R) ICC may also give advisory opinions under Articles 65-68 of the Statute of the ICJ to countries.
Codes
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
Question 16.
Who regulates legal education in India?
(a) Legal Education Committee
(b) State Bar Council
(c) Bar Council of India
(d) Recognised Universities of India
Answer:
(c) Bar Council of India
Question 17.
Which law provides a framework for domestic law on international arbitration?
(a) The United Nations Convention on Contracts for the Sale of International Goods (CISG)
(b) The UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration
(c) The Geneva Convention on the execution of foreign arbitral awards
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration
Question 18.
Assertion (A) The National Commission for Minorities was enacted in the year 1992.
Reason (R) The primary objective is to safeguard the human rights of minorities, including protection against inequality and discrimination.
Codes
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
Question 19.
Supreme Court legal Services Committee is created by
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) High Court
Answer:
(b) Central Government
Question 20.
Which of the following is an innovative Indian contribution to global jurisprudence?
(a) Ombudsman
(b) Lok Adalat
(c) Arbitration
(d) Mediation
Answer:
(b) Lok Adalat
SECTION – B
Question 21.
Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of High Court judges?
Question 22.
Why is mediation a better method of resolution of disputes arising from strained resolutions?
Question 23.
State the meaning of acceptance under the Indian Contract Act.
Question 24.
How can an immovable property of a value more than ₹ 100 be transferred?
Question 25.
Why are indicators important in sustainable development?
Question 26.
Define the term of partnership under the partnership act.
Question 27.
State four parts of the Indian Constitution which contains the human rights framework.
Question 28.
Give some examples of some organisations working in the domain of private international law.
Or
In a regional summit in South Asia, there is widespread acceptance of the need to strengthen the bonds between nations by promoting cultural heritage and the equal dignity of all cultures. Identify the international organisation that works towards this objective. Why was the need for creation of this organisation felt?
SECTION – C
Question 29.
What do you understand about International Human Rights? Which is one of the most influential documents in this regard?
Question 30.
State the requirements to be fulfilled by law aspirants, both Indian and foreign national, to be able to start practice in India.
Question 31.
(a) Why is private international law? How is it different from public international law?
(b) Why is private international law referred to as ‘Conflict of Laws’?
Question 32.
State any four functions of the National Commission for Minorities.
Question 33.
What do you understand by freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions? Also state the exceptions, if any.
Or
What do you understand about International Human Rights? Explain.
Question 34.
State any four functions of the National Commission for Women.
Question 35.
Write two disadvantages of limited liability partnership and partnership.
Question 36.
What are the roles of fundamental duties in protecting and promoting environmental protection in India?
Or
What are the significances of the united nations conference on Environment and Development?
SECTION – D
Question 37.
How can you say that the Central Government has sanctioned the working of several ombudsmen in the country? Give some examples.
Question 38.
What are the significances of the united nations conference on Environment and Development?
Or
What was the primary objective of the Stockholm Declaration 1972?
Question 39.
Give a short note on the background of the American Bar Association.
Or
Explain the categories of legal practitioners in India after the Advocates Act, 1961.
Question 40.
Give any four functions of the National Human Rights Commission.
Or
Write a note on the National Commission for SCs and STs. What are their objectives?