CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 8 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 8 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following and choose the correct option. (1)

Answer:
(a) 1 2 3 4

Question 2.
Identify and name of the leader associated with the founding of ‘Young Europe’ in Berne in 1833, as shown in the picture given below. (1)

(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Metternich
(d) Count Cavour
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

Question 3.
Why was the Zollverein formed by Prussia in the 19th century? (1)
(a) To impose economic restrictions on smaller German states
(b) To abolish tariffs and unify the German economy
(c) To promote aristocratic trade dominance
(d) To establish a French-German trade agreement
Answer:
(b) To abolish tariffs and unify the German economy

Question 4.
How did Romanticism contribute to the development of nationalism in 19th-century Europe? (1)
(a) By promoting strict military discipline in society
(b) By glorifying science and industrial advancement
(c) By emphasising cultural identity, folklore, and common heritage
(d) By calling for monarchy-based governance
Answer:
(c) By emphasising cultural identity, folklore and common heritage

Question 5.
“The French Revolution played a key role in the growth of nationalism in Europe.”Explain the statement with any two examples.(2)
Or
“Napoleon introduced revolutionary reforms but also provoked nationalist reactions.” Explain with examples.
Answer:
French Revolution plays significant role in the growth of nationalism in Europe in the following ways

• End of Monarchy and Rise of Republic It abolished absolute monarchy and established a republic based on the principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity, inspiring nationalist movements.
• Spreading Nationalism Across Europe French armies carried revolutionary ideas across Europe, encouraging people to rise against monarchies and build nation-states based on common identity.

Or
Napoleon introduced many reforms but also provoked nationalist reactions. His Napoleonic code, modern laws and efficient administration spread ideas of equality and progress. However, his expansionist policies made people feel exploited. For example, in Spain and Germany, strong resistance movements grew, giving rise to nationalism against French control.

Question 6.
“Different social groups participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement with varied aspirations.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (3)
Or
“The Non-Cooperation Movement drew participation from various social sections, each interpreting the idea of Swaraj in their own way.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Different social groups participated in the Non-Cooperation movement with varied aspirations, for example

• In towns, the movement was joined by students, teachers and lawyers who boycotted government schools, colleges, and courts to express protest.
• Peasants in Awadh, led by Baba Ramchandra, demanded a reduction of revenue and abolition of begar, interpreting Swaraj as relief from landlor’ds’ oppression.
• Tribal people in Andhra Pradesh followed Alluri Sitaram Raju, who inspired a violent guerrilla struggle against forest laws, imagining Swaraj as freedom from British-imposed restrictions.

Or
The given statement can be justified through the following points

• Students, teachers and lawyers in cities saw Swaraj as political freedom and protested by boycotting government institutions.
• Peasants in Awadh, led by Baba Ramchandra, viewed Swaraj as relief from high rents, forced labour (begar) and oppressive landlords.
• Tribal communities in Andhra Pradesh, inspired by Alluri Sitaram Raju, linked Swaraj with regaining forest rights and resisting British control.

Question 7.
“The Bretton Woods system laid the foundation for post-war economic stability and growth, but its collapse marked the beginning of globalisation.” Analyse this statement with suitable reasons. (5)
Or
Describe the spirit of conservatism after 1815 , highlighting the role of the Congress of Vienna and the Treaty of Vienna.
Answer:
The Bretton woods system laid the foundation for post-war, economic stability and growth but collapse mark the beginning of globalisation due to the following reasons

• Post-1945 Stability It led to the creation of the IMF and World Bank to ensure economic stability and employment.
• Fixed Exchange Rates National currencies were pegged to the US dollar, which was linked to gold, promoting global trade.
• Period of Growth Between the 1950s and 1970s, trade grew, and unemployment remained low in industrial nations.
• Collapse in the 1970s The weakening US economy and inflation led to the end of fixed exchange rates.
• Globalisation Emerged This collapse allowed MNCs to move production to low-wage nations, increasing trade, investment, and integration globally.

Or
The spirit of conservatism after 1815 was marked by a strong desire to restore traditional institutions and undo the changes brought by Napoleon. Conservatives believed in preserving monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies and property, while also accepting that modernisation such as efficient bureaucracy, a strong army, and the abolition of feudalism could strengthen autocratic rule.

To enforce this conservative order, the Congress of Vienna was held in 1815 under the leadership of Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The Treaty of Vienna (1815) restored the Bourbon dynasty in France, made France give up annexed territories, and reorganised European boundaries to prevent French expansion. The Kingdom of the Netherlands was created, Genoa was added to Piedmont, Austria gained control over Northern Italy, Prussia received Western territories and Russia obtained part of Poland.

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the 19th century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
Earlier, in 1845, weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied them raw material and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments. The journalist Wilhelm Wolff described the events in a Silesian village as follows: In these villages (with 18,000 inhabitants) cotton weaving is the most widespread occupation. The misery of the workers is extreme. The desperate need for jobs has been taken advantage of by the contractors to reduce the prices of the goods they order
(i) Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt in 1845? (1)
(ii) What happened when the weavers demanded higher wages from the contractor in 1845 ? (1)
(iii) Explain the events and outcome of the weaver’s revolt in Silesia in 1845. (2)
Answer:
(i) The weavers in Silesia revolted in 1845 because contractors drastically reduced their wages, despite their urgent need for work.

(ii) When the weavers demanded higher wages from the contractor in 1845, they were ridiculed and threatened which led them to attack the contractor’s house in anger.

(iii) The events and outcome of the weavers revolt in Silesia in 1845 were that Desperate weavers protested at the contractor’s mansion, demanding better wages. After being scorned, they ransacked the house and storehouse. The contractor escaped and returned with the army. Eleven protesting weavers were shot in retaliation.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
On the political map of India, locate and label the following with a suitable symbol. Identify the places marked on the map.
(A) The city associated with the significant strike by mill workers during the freedom struggle. (1)
(B) The place where the massacre occurred in 1919. (1)

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
What is essential to ensure sustainable development while utilising natural resources? (1)
(a) Unrestricted use of renewable resources
(b) Focus only on industrial growth
(c) Balanced resource planning and equitable distribution
(d) Rapid urbanisation and infrastructure expansion
Answer:
(c) Balanced resource planning and equitable distribution

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the table below. (1)
(a) Black soil, Laterite soil
(b) Red & Yellow soils, Black soil
(c) Black soil, Red and Yellow soils
(d) Red & Yellow soils, Laterite soil
Answer:
(a) Black soil, Laterite soil

Question 12.
“Composite Water Management Index” published in June 2018, had mentioned that 21 major cities were expected to run out of groundwater by 2020 . This was based on the estimates of annual groundwater replenishment and its extraction without taking into account the groundwater availability in the deeper aquifers.
According to recent government reports, India’s water-stressed regions are experiencing severe groundwater depletion. Which of the following is the most significant indirect impact of this crisis?
(a) Decrease in India’s monsoon rainfall
(b) Increase in inter-state water disputes
(c) Shortage of fertilisers in agriculture
(d) Decline in electricity production
Answer:
(b) Increase in inter-state water disputes

Question 13.
Which of the following best describes the forest classification system in India? (1)
(a) Reserved, Protected, and Unclassed forests
(b) Deciduous, Evergreen, and Thorn forests
(c) Industrial, Private, and Social forests
(d) Natural, Artificial, and Agro-forests
Answer:
(a) Reserved, Protected, and Unclassed forests

Question 14.
Which state in India was the first to make rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory? (1)
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu.

Question 15.
What is the main objective of the Soil Health Card Scheme launched by the Government of India? (1)
(a) Promote organic farming in all states
(b) Improve the income of middlemen in agriculture
(c) Provide information to farmers on the nutrient status of soil
(d) Replace traditional farming with hydroponics
Answer:
(c) Provide information to farmers on the nutrient status of soil

Question 16.
Wheat is mainly grown in Punjab and Uttar Pradesh, but not in Tamil Nadu. Why does this cropping pattern vary geographically? (2)
Answer:
This cropping pattern varies geographically for the following reasons

• Wheat requires cool growing seasons and moderate rainfall, which is available in Punjab and UP.
• Tamil Nadu has a tropical climate with high temperatures and humidity, which is not suitable for wheat cultivation.

Question 17.
Person X wants to set up a solar energy plant in Rajasthan. Justify with reasons why Rajasthan is ideal for this renewable energy project. (5)
Or
“Hydroelectric power is a clean and renewable source of energy.” Evaluate this statement by highlighting its benefits and limitations.
Answer:
Rajasthan is ideal for this renewable energy project because of the following reasons

• High Solar Insolation Rajasthan receives abundant sunlight throughout the year nearly 300 sunny days.
• Large Arid Land Rajasthan has vast stretches of arid and semi arid land that remain unused for agriculture providing abundant space for setting up large solar farms. Moreover, the clear skies and dry climate further enhance the efficiency of solar panels.
• Low Population Density Makes land acquisition easier and cheaper.
• Government Support The State actively promotes solar power with subsidies and policies.
• Sustainability Need Solar energy aligns with India’s push towards clean energy and reducing carbon footprint.

Or
The benefits and limitations of hydroelectric power are as follows
Benefits

• It uses flowing water, a renewable resource, to generate electricity without emitting greenhouse gases.
• Hydropower plants provide as steady supply of electricity and help in reducing dependence on fossil fuels.
• Dam created for hydropower also support irrigation, flood control and tourism.

Limitations

• Building large dams flood vast areas, leading to loss of forests, wildlife habitats and displacement of people.
• In drought years, power generation is affected due’to reduced water availability.

Question 18.
Read the source given below and answer the questions.
According to the 2023 report released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, about 29.7% of India’s total geographical area is undergoing various forms of land degradation. Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh are the worst-affected states.

The causes of degradation include overgrazing, deforestation, mining activities, over-irrigation, and improper agricultural practices. It is also noted that population pressure and expansion of urban areas have accelerated soil erosion and desertification.
The Indian government has pledged to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030, aligning with its commitment to Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

States like Haryana and Rajasthan have begun implementing soil conservation methods, including contour bunding, shelter belts, afforestation, crop rotation, and promoting organic farming in semi-arid regions. However, more institutional and technological support is needed for long-term sustainability.
(i) Name any one state mentioned in the case that is implementing land restoration programmes and mention one method used. (1)
(ii) Explain any two human-induced causes of land degradation in India. (2)
(iii) What is India’s national-level target for land restoration by 2030 under the UNCCD commitment? (1)
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan is implementing land restoration programmes using methods like contour bunding and afforestation.

(ii) Two human-induced causes of land degradation in India are as follows

• Overgrazing Excess grazing by cattle removes vegetation cover, exposing soil to erosion and desertification.
• Over-irrigation Leads to waterlogging and salinity, especially in agricultural regions like Punjab and Haryana, reducing land productivity.

(iii) India aims to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030 under the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

Map Based Question

Question 19.
I. On the same outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols (1)
(a) The state which is the largest producer of jute in India
Or
(b) The location of an oilfield in Assam
II. Any two of the following. (2)
(i) First port to be developed after Independence
(ii) The deepest landlocked port of India
(iii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statements about power-sharing in Belgium are correct? (1)
I. The Constitution prescribes equal representation for Dutch and French-speaking ministers in the Central Government.
II. Community governments are elected by people belonging to one language community.
III. The State Governments are subordinate to the Central Government.
IV. Brussels has a separate government with equal representation for both communities.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II and IV

Question 21.
The cartoon below uses the metaphor of a car to represent the German Government formed after the 2005 elections. What does the cartoon suggest about the nature of this government? (1)

(a) Single-party rule
(b) Coalition government
(c) Military regime
(d) Presidential system
Answer:
(b) Coalition government

Question 22.
Consider the following case and choose the correct option. (1)
Suppose the Central Government introduces a new education policy. The Government of Tamil Nadu opposes it, arguing that education is a State subject. Can the Central Government enforce this policy?
(a) Yes, because education is a Concurrent List subject.
(b) No, because education is a State List subject,
(c) Yes, but only with the approval of the State Government.
(d) No, because the Central Government cannot interfere in State matters.
Answer:
(a) Yes, because education is a Concurrent List subject.

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. (1)
Assertion (A) Democracy ensures dignity and freedom for all citizens.
Reason (R) It provides equal rights and opportunities to every individual.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
Highlight any two key features of a secular state. (2)
Answer:
The two key features of a secular state are as follows

• The state does not promote any religion as the official religion.
•  It ensures freedom to practice and propagate any religion.

Question 25.
‘Gender inequality persists in India despite constitutional provisions.’ Support this statement with two examples. (2)
Answer:
This statement can be explained through the following examples

• Literacy Gap Female literacy rate (54%) is significantly lower than male literacy ( 76%).
• Wage Discrimination Women are often paid less than men for the same work, even in sectors like agriculture and factories.

Question 26.
‘Federalism strengthens democracy by accommodating regional diversity.’ Justify the statement with three arguments. (3)
Answer:
The given statement can be justified through the following arguments

• Autonomy to States State Governments can address local issues effectively (e.g., linguistic states in India).
• Power-Sharing Reduces conflicts by ensuring participation of diverse groups (e.g., Belgium’s community government).
• Unity in Diversity Promotes national integration while respecting regional identities (e.g., special status for Jammu and Kashmir earlier).

Question 27.
‘Political parties are indispensable for a functioning democracy.’ Analyse the statement. (5)
Or
‘Money and muscle power in elections undermine the spirit of democracy.’ Evaluate the statement with examples.
Answer:
The statement “Political parties are indispensable for a functioning democracy” is true because democracy cannot work without them. Political parties provide a meaningful choice to citizens by presenting different policies and ideologies. They contest elections, nominate candidates, and form governments. Without parties, every candidate would be independent, making it difficult to form responsible governments.

Parties also link the government with the people by shaping public opinion, raising demands, and voicing people’s problems. They help in making laws, checking the ruling party through opposition, and offering alternative policies. For example, in India, parties like the Congress, BJP, CPI(M), etc. represent different visions and give voters real options. Thus, political parties are necessary for collective representation, stability, and the smooth functioning of democracy
Or
The statement “Money and muscle power in elections undermine the spirit of democracy” is correct because democracy means equal participation of all citizens. However, excessive use of money and muscle weakens this principle. Rich candidates often spend huge amounts on campaigning, advertisements, and buying votes, which creates unfair competition for ordinary candidates. This reduces elections to a contest of wealth rather than policies.

Similarly, muscle power use of violence, intimidation, and criminal background of candidates prevents voters from freely exercising their choice. For example, in many constituencies, voters are threatened or influenced by powerful groups. These practices go against the democratic ideals of free and fair elections, political equality, and people’s genuine choice. Therefore, money and muscle power weaken democracy from its very roots.

Question 28.
Read the given text and answer the following questions.
Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.

The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later. This led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s. The tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a special problem: the Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.
(i) Identify one key feature of Belgium’s power-sharing model that ensures minority rights. (1)
(ii) State one reason why Brussels needed a separate government. (1)
(iii) Explain how Belgium’s power-sharing model differs from Sri Lanka’s majoritarian approach. (2)
Answer:
(i) One key feature of Belgium’s power-sharing model that ensures minority rights is equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking communities in the Central Government.

(ii) Brussels needed a separate government because it had 80% French speakers but was located in the Dutch-majority region, requiring balanced representation.

(iii) The differences between models of Belgium and Sri Lanka are as follows

Difference	Belgium	Sri Lanka
Type of Power Sharing	Adopted a power-sharing arrangement to accommodate all ethnic groups.	Followed a majoritarian policy favouring the Sinhala-speaking majority.
Outcome of the Policy	Ensured peace and political stability by respecting all communities.	Led to civil war and conflict due to the denial of rights to the Tamils.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Which of the following reflects a shift from primary to tertiary sector in employment patterns? (1)
(a) A farmer starts selling vegetables in the local market.
(b) A teacher begins part-time farming.
(c) A labourer starts a construction business.
(d) A factory worker switches to accounting work.
Answer:
(d) A factory worker switches to accounting work.

Question 30.
What can be inferred about the importance of the Human Development Index (HDI) in comparing the level of development among countries? Choose the correct option as the answer. (1)
(a) HDI focuses solely on the income level of people, without considering other aspects of human well-being.
(b) HDI excludes indicators like life expectancy and education, making it an incomplete measure.
(c) HDI provides a comprehensive picture of development by including indicators related to income, health, and education.
(d) HDI only reflects economic growth and does not consider people’s standard of living or quality of life.
Answer:
(c) HDI provides a comprehensive picture of development by including indicators related to income, health, and education.

Question 31.
How does money help overcome the key limitation of the barter system? (1)
(a) It promotes the exchange of goods directly without the involvement of any standard medium, making trading flexible.
(b) It serves as a commonly accepted medium of exchange, thereby eliminating the need for a double coincidence of wants between buyers and sellers.
(c) It enables people to trade goods and services only within local village economies without needing any external link.
(d) It permanently assigns a fixed value to all goods and services, making transactions easier in all situations.
Answer:
(b) It serves as a commonly accepted medium of exchange, thereby eliminating the need for a double coincidence of wants between buyers and sellers.

Question 32.
Which of the following best explains how MNCs promote globalisation? (1)
(a) They operate only in their home countries.
(b) They rely solely on local raw materials.
(c) They invest, produce, and sell in multiple countries.
(d) They avoid partnerships and outsourcing.
Answer:
(c) They invest, produce, and sell in multiple countries.

Question 33.
Person X is discussing different borrowing situations in rural areas and tries to identify which one would be considered a favourable credit arrangement. Which of the following options do you think best supports X’s understanding? (1)
(a) A borrower takes a loan from a local moneylender at an extremely high interest rate of 36%, which leads to a debt trap.
(b) A person uses a bank loan not for productive use but to repay an older, high-interest informal loan.
(c) A farmer receives a crop loan from a formal source at a low interest rate of 4% and invests it in buying seeds for cultivation.
(d) A borrower is forced to sell a portion of land or property in order to repay a previously taken loan.
Answer:
(c) A farmer receives a crop loan from a formal source at a low interest rate of 4% and invests it in buying seeds for cultivation.

Question 34.
Match the following (1)

Answer:
(b) 4 2 3 1

Question 35.
Evaluate the importance of the public sector in ensuring balanced regional development in India. (3)
Answer:
Public sector has the following importance in ensuring balanced regional development in India

• Infrastructure Development The public sector builds roads, railways, and irrigation systems in remote regions, improving connectivity.
• Employment Generation It provides job opportunities in underdeveloped areas, reducing migration to cities.
• Basic Services The Government ensures access to schools, hospitals, and clean water even where the private sector doesn’t operate.

Question 36.
‘People in rural areas need greater access to formal sources of credit.’ Justify. (3)
Answer:
People in rural areas need greater access to formal sources of credit for the following reasons

• Low Interest Rates Formal institutions offer credit at affordable rates compared to moneylenders.
• Productive Use Farmers and rural entrepreneurs can invest in tools, seeds, and businesses.
• Debt Security Formal loans have legal protections and don’t lead to exploitation or land loss.

Question 37.
Highlight any three major ways in which globalisation has affected Indian consumers. (3)
Answer:
Three major ways in which globalisation has affected Indian consumers are as follows

• Greater Choice Consumers now access a wider range of global products and brands.
• Improved Quality Competition among companies has improved product quality.
• Price Benefits Availability of multiple brands has reduced prices and increased affordability.

Question 38.
A student interviewed two factory workers, X and Y, about their job conditions. After comparing their responses, the student concluded that worker X is employed in the public sector, while worker Y works in the private sector. Analyse the key differences in working conditions and objectives of public and private sectors that must have helped the student arrive at this conclusion. (5)
Or
Employment in the unorganised sector plays an important role in the Indian economy, yet it poses several challenges for workers. Support the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
The differences in working conditions and objectives of the public and private sectors that must have helped the student arrive at this conclusion are

Or
Employment in the unorganised sector plays an important role in the Indian economy, yet it poses several challenges for workers due to the following reasons.

• High Employment Share A large portion of India’s workforce is employed in the unorganised sector, especially in agriculture, construction, and small-scale industries.
• Low Job Security Workers often have no written contracts or regular wages, making their employment unstable and insecure.
• Lack of Social Benefits There is generally no provision for health insurance, paid leave, pension, or provident fund for unorganised workers.
• Exploitation Risk In the absence of regulation, workers face poor working conditions, low pay, long hours, and even child labour.
• Vital for Informal Economy Despite challenges, this sector supports millions of livelihoods and contributes significantly to the informal economy and overall GDP.