Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 8 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each,
- Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C contains Q.25 to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Section E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no, 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary
Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each
Question 1.
Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct? (1)
I. After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
II. France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the royal family.
III. A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens.
IV. Imposition of internal customs duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
Codes
(a) II and III
(b) II and 1V
(c) I and III
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(c) I and III
Question 2.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1918.
(b) In 1918, Gandhiji went to Ahmedabad to organise a Satyagraha Movement.
(c) Khilafat Movement was started in 1921.
(d) Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13th April, 1919.
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1918.
Question 3.
Arrange the following events in a chronological order. (1)
I. Integration of Italy
II. Greek struggle for Independence initiated
III. Unification of Germany
IV. Agreement on Vienna Peace Settlement
Codes
(a) I, IV, II, III
(b) IV, II, III, I
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) I, II, III, IV
Answer:
(c) IV, II, I, III
Question 4.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark our answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence against the Greeks which began in 1831. Reason (R) Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true
Question 5.
Animesh is a student of humanities. One day he was keen to know about the reason behind the opposition movements of women and non-propertied men in the 18th and early 19th centur There are four statements given below. Can you identify which among the following statements would be most helpful in clearing the doubt of Animesh.
(a) Demanding for property
(b) Demanding equal political rights
(c) Demanding membership in Jacobian Club
(d) Demanding equal distribution of wealth
Answer:
(b) Demanding equal political rights
Question 6.
Identify the crop with the help of given clues (1)
It is a tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop.
It grows well in hot and humid climates.
A temperature of 21° C to 27° TC and an annual rainfall between 75cm and 1oo cm.
(a) Oil seeds
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Tea
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(b) Sugarcane
Question 7.
Rana was asked to list down the names of four crops hich are grown during the Zaid season. She prcpud the answei but the
answer was a bit incorrect. With regard to your knowledge. identify the incorrect answer given by Rana.
(a) Groundnut
(b) Muskmelon
(c) Soybean
(d) Mustard
Answer:
(b) Muskmelon
Question 8.
Which among the following statements is true regarding renewable resources? (1)
(a) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.
(b) Renewable resources are available only in the developed nations.
(c) Renewable resources are in abundance.
(d) Renewable resources are fixed and they are bound to get exhausted.
Answer:
(a) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.
Question 9.
Which of the following statements are incorrect? (1)
I. Silica is commonly found in sandy soil.
II. Petroleum is commonly found in Bihar Assarn, offshore Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
III. Fluorite is majorly found in Nasik and Jalgaon areas of Maharashtra.
IV. Bauxite is available in Koderma and Hazarihagh areas of Jharkhand, Gava in Bihar, and in Rajasthan.
Codes
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(b) II and IV
Question 10.
Following image shows new laws that were made in Russia in 2005 giving powers to its President. During thc same time, the US President visited Russia. Study the given picture and answer the following question. (1)
Which among the following statements appropriately describes the given picture?
(a) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(b) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(c) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
(d) Concentration of powers in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
Answer:
(b) Concentration of power under one center undermines the concept of democracy.
Question 11.
While making her geography notes, Seeta found out the term Conuco. She searched the term on Google and found that this term denotes slash and burn agriculture practiced in a country The ‘slash and burn agriculture’ is known as ‘Conuco’ in which of the following countries? (1)
(a) Venezuela
(b) Brazil
(c) Indonesia
(d) Mexico
Answer:
(a) Venezuela
Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) Nationalist Congress party was formed in 1999.
Reason (R) It is a major party in Maharashtra and demands for Gandhian secularism, democracy, social justice and federalism.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Question 13.
Choose the correct statement associated with democracy. (1)
(a) Democracy is not to lag behind dictatorship.
(b) Democracy is not guarantee of economic development.
(c) Economic growth is better in non-democratic government.
(d) USA has a democratic government, but also has a remarkable economic development.
Answer:
(b) Democracy is not guarantee of economic development.
Question 14.
Miss Manju was teaching her students about the power-sharing structure of India. After her lecture was over, she asked her students that ‘According to the Indian Constitution, the power is shared among which of the following government bodies”. As a student of social science, answer her question. (1)
(a) Power is shared between centre and states in three lists.
(b) Power is shared between center and states in two lists.
(c) Power is not shared at all.
(d) Power is shared between the Central Government and Indian President.
Answer:
(a) Power is shared between centre and states in three lists.
Question 15.
Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian federation? (1)
Statement I Equal representation of states in the Second House of Parliament.
Statement II Bicameral Legislature at federal level.
Statement III Double citizenship.
Statement IV Independent and Impartial Judiciary.
Codes
(a) Statement I and II are right
(b) Statement 11 and III are right
(c) Statement II and IV are right
(d) Statement III and IV are right
Answer:
(c) Statement II and IV are right
Question 16.
Read the following data and select the appropriate option from the following. (1)
Region/Country | Reserves 2017 (Thousand Millions Barrels) | Number of Years Reserves will last |
Middle East | 808 | 70 |
United States of America | 50 | 10.5 |
World | 1697 | 50.2 |
For how many years will the reserves of crude oil last in middle East, if they continue extracting it at the present rate?
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 60 years
Answer:
(c) 70 years
Question 17.
Which of the following neighboring countries of India has better performance in terms of human development than India? (1)
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka
Question 18.
Consider the following statements and choose the task which is not performed by the Public sector in India. (1)
(a) Developing infrastructure which is done by developing, communication, heavy industries, building bridges, roads and railways, dams, generating electricity
(b) Dealing with problems of malnutrition, high infant mortality rate, unsafe drinking water lack of housing. food and nutrition. etc.
(c) Support farmers by buying food grains at a fair price and support poor people in supplying food grains at low price in ration shops.
(d) Can stabilise the prices of products and services by creating fair market conditions.
Answer:
(d) Can stabilise the prices of products and services by creating fair market conditions.
Question 19.
Sheela owns a small flower shop near a temple. She wants to expand her shop by keeping exotic flowers and flower bouquets.
To whom she should approach for’ a ever short-term credit? 1
(a) Moneylenders as the’ provide short-term credit
(b) Banks as they charge low interest.
(c) Cooperatives as they do not require collateral.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Cooperatives as they do not require collateral.
Question 20.
There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban areas who search for daily employment. They arc employed as painters, plumbers, repair persons and other odd jobs. Many of them dont find work every day. The problem of underemployment occurs (1)
(a) when people are not willing to work
(b) when people are working slowly
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs
Answer:
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing
Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each
Question 21.
State the role of Dr BR Ambedkar in the upliftment of Dalits. (2)
Answer:
- The role of Dr B R Ambedkar in uplifting the Dalits was
- He joined active politics in 1930 and organised the Depressed Classes Association to uptift the Dalits,
- He demanded Separate Electorates for Dalits and reservation of seats in educational institutions for them.
Question 22.
Sunny works in a mining industry. He got injured several times during works. In this context, mention the kinds of hazards faced in the mining industry.
Or
Why India has the potential to develop wind energy? Which places in India are sources of wind energy? (1+1)
Answer:
The kinds of hazards faced in the mining industry include
Risk to life due to collapse of roofs, overflow of water. fire is always there inside the mines.
Mining causes respiratory diseases and pulmonary disorders to miners
Or
India has a long coastline in which there is scope of developing wind energy The areas along the coastline are windy and
- windmills can be established there, The places in India having source of wind energy or wine mills are
- Wind farm cluster located in Tamil Nadu from Nagercoil to Madurai.
- Wind farms in Gujarat. Kerala, Maharashtra, Lakshadweep, and Andhra Pradesh.
- Wind farm in Jaisalmer.
Question 23.
State any two features of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
Answer:
- The two features of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are
- The scheme targets people suffering from poverty in the rural areas.
- The scheme guarantees 100 days (recently amended to 150 days in drought-hit areas) of wage employment in a year to every household in 625 districts of the country.
Question 24.
Study the map thoroughly and mention the ethnic composition of this country’s capital city.
Answer:
The ethnic composition of Belgiums capital Brussels is very complex. In The capital city 80% people speak French while 20% are Dutch-speaking. Meanwhile, the minority French-speaking people are more rich and powerful than the Dutch-speaking people.
Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each
Question 25.
Describe the three major features of federalism. (3)
Answer:
The three major features of federalism are as follows
(i) Different Levels of Government with Separate Jurisdiction The government consists of two or more levels (or tiers) which govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(ii) Jurisdiction Guaranteed The jurisdictions of levels of government are specified in the Constitution. So, the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
(iii) Courts Settle Disputes between Levels of Government Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire, if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Question 26.
“At first, the rich peasants of Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat were enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement, but later they refused to participate.” Analyse the statement. (3)
Answer:
The rich peasant communities such as the Patidars from Gujarat and Jais from Uttar Pradesh were active in the Civil Disobedience Movement. As they were producers of commercial crops, they were hit hard by the trade depression and failing prices. As their cash income disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand. These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the movement and also forced other people to join the movement.
For peasants, the fight for Swaraj was a struggle against the payment of high revenues. They were highly disappointed when the movement was called off in 1931 without the revenue rates being revised. When the movement restarted in 1932 many of them refused to participate.
Question 27.
Sohan wants to sell his rice and purchase oils. Similarly, Mohan wants to sell his oil for purchasing rice. They both exchange
their commodities with each other What is this system called? Why this system considered difficult to trade a commodity? Give any three reasons. (3)
Or
Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India? (3)
Answer:
This system is called barter system. Three reasons for the barter system being considered difficult to trade a commodity are as follows
(i) There are many products which cannot be divided or sub-divided For example, If the price of a cow is equal to 100 shirts, then a person having one shirt cannot exchange ¡t for a part of the cow, as it is not possible to divide the cow into small pieces without destroying its utility.
(ii) Deciding the value of goods is difficult. For example, one can offer 1 kg rice for a pair of shoes whereas the shoe owner can demand 2 kg rice for the same shoes.
(iii) Double coincidence of wants is necessary. It means that both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities. Thus, if a farmer wants to sell his rice in exchange for a pair of shoes, then he has to find a shoe owner who wants to exchange a pair of shoes for rice.
Or
The reasons for expanding formal sources of credit in India are High cost of borrowing leads to a major share of earnings going into payment of interest on the loan so formal source of credit is needed.
Sometimes the higher interest rate leads to the requirement to pay more than the earnings, thus falling into a debt trap To eliminate this, formal sources are needed
Formal sources of lending to more borrowers will lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety of needs like growing crops, set-up business or small-scale industries.
Question 28.
‘Political parties usually face a crisis of unpopularity and indifference among the citizens’. Comment. (3)
Answer:
The political parties face crisis of unpopularity and indifference among the citizens as evident through the following
Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia
Stfil the level of participation in the activities of political parties is fairly high.
The proportion of the members of some political parties is higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea.
Over the last three decades, the proportion of members close to a political party in India has gone up steadrly.
Question 29.
In this question, you have two diagrams. Compare them and find out the land use category which had the highest increase
during the period 1960-61 to 2014-15 and the category which had the highest decrease during the period. Give one major reason for each. (3)
Answer:
The highest increase was in forest cover i.e. from 18.11%in 1960-61 to23.3%in2014-15, This increase is due to government efforts made in the field of conservation of environment by demarking the forest areas, Still, is below the outline of 33% set in National Forest Policy, 1952.
The highest decrease was in barren and unculturable wasteland i.e. from 18.11% to 55%. It is due to rise in area under non-agricultural uses. Massive urbanisation, development of roads, railways and other uses have brought waste land into area under non-agricultural uses.
Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each
Question 30.
As we turn around and look back at Indian history we may find that before independence of India, the political leaders differed sharply over the question of separate electorates. Substantiate the statement by giving a proper reason behind it. (5)
Or
For instance, suppose you are a woman participating in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Explain what the experience meant to your life. (5)
Answer:
Political leaders differed sharply over the question of separate electorates because
(i) the Muslim leaders thought that their interests could only be protected in a Muslim state, and in a Hindu majority state they would be at the mercy of the Hindus. They wanted reserved seats in the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to
population in the Muslim-dominated provinces, viz, Bengal and Punjab.
(ii) Dr BR Ambedkar, the leader of the depressed classes, was in favour of separate electorates for his community but Gandhiji believed that separate electorates for Dalits would slow down the processes of their integration into society. Later, Arnbedkar
accepted Gandhi’s position and signed the Poona Pact’.
Or
I was very happy to participate in Civil Disobedience Movement because I understood that I had to serve the nation in whatever capacity I could. I had heard Gandhiji speaking and asking us to participate in this movement.
Inspired by him, I also offered satyagraha, picketed liquor shops and shops selling foreign cloth, and also courted arrest. I felt empowered by these activities and felt that women also could help the men actively in the ultimate goal of achieving independence from the British. The experience has made me realise that women also have an important role to play in realising our freedom.
Question 31.
Write a brief note on waterways mentioning the National Waterways of India. (5)
Or
Enlist and describe the five major ports situated on the Western coast of India alongside the Arabian Sea. (5)
Answer:
Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. It is fuel-efficient, environment-friendly, and suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods India has inland navigation waterways of about 14,500 km in length Out of which 5685 km are navigable by mechanised boats.
The waterways declared as the National Waterways are
- NW-1 Allahabad to Haldia (1.620 km) on the Ganga river system.
- NW-2 Sadiya to Dhubri (891 km) on the Brahmaputra river.
- NW-3 West-Coast canal in Kerala (205 km), (Kottapuram-Komman, Uctyogamandal, and Champakkara canals).
- NW-4 Parts of Krishna and Godavari rivers along with Kakinada-Puducherry stretch of canals (1,078 km).
- NW-5 Parts of Brahrnani River along with Matai River, delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers, and East coast canal (588 km).
There are some other inland waterways on which substantial transportation takes place. These are Mandavi, Zuari and Cumberjua, Sunderbans, Barak, and backwaters of Kerala.
Or
The following are the major ports lying on the Western coast along the side of the Arabian Sea.
(i) Kandla It is located in the Gulf of Kutch. It was the first port which was developed soon after independence when the Karachi port went to Pakistan due to partition. It was developed to facilitate the volume of trade on the Mumbai port. It is also known as the Deendayal Port. It is a tidal port. It handles exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belts stretching across The states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana. Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(ii) Mumbal It is the biggest port in India with a natural harbour. Jawaharlal Nehru port developed nearby to case off the decongestant in Mumbal port.
(iii) Marmagao (Goa) It is the premier iron ore exporting port in India. This port accounts for about 50% of India’s iron ore exports.
(iv) New Mangalore It is located in Karnataka. It caters to export of iron ore from Kudremukh mines.
(v) Kochchi It is the extreme South-Western port located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
Question 32.
What may be development for one person may not be development for another? Explain the statement with suitable examples. (5)
Or
In recent scenarios, the term sustainable development is becoming popular With respect to economics, define the term sustainable development and also list down any three measures to control environmental degradation. (5)
Answer:
Two groups may have different notions of development. For example, the local community’s notion of development on the case of construction of a darn was that they areas in which they live will be sub-merged and there will be greater environmental degradation.
However, the government’s notion of development, in this case, would be that by raising the height of the dam, they would be able to provide more water to the people of Saurashtra region of Gujarat, which always suffers from water scarcity. In addition, this measure, which would benefit all the people, would be generated while living in that area.
Sustainability for development or sustainable development refers to the development which takes place without damaging the environment. Such development should also not compromise on the needs of future generations otherwise, it is meaningless.
Following are three measures to control environmental degradation
- Over-exploitation of resources should be avoided.
Rule of three ‘Rs ie. recycle, reduce and reuse, should be adopted. - In place of conventional and non-renewable energy resources, renewable energy resources must be adopted.
- New technologies should be developed for judicious use of resources and pollution-free environment.
Question 33.
Describe the advantages of decentralisation.
Or
Why has federalism succeeded in India? Which three policies adopted by India have ensured this success? (1+4)
Answer:
When power is taken from Central and State Governments and given to local government, it is called decentralisation.
The advantages of decentralisation are
(i) The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level. People have better knowledge of the problems of their own locality. They have better idea on where to spend money and how to manage things efficiently.
(ii) Decentralisation makes it possible for the people to directly participate in decision-making. This helps the people to develop a habit to participate in democratic activities. Thus, local government is the best way to realise the significance of local self-government in democracy.
(iii) Decentralisation reduces the burden of Central and State Governments. It helps to concentrate on matters of national of state importance in a better way
(iv) Decentralisation leads to women empowerment as it provides that at least one-third of all positions are reserved for women in all the local bodies.
Or
The policies adopted by Indian Government have ensured the success of federalism in India, Policies adopted by India to ensure this success are
(i) Centre-State Relations Federalism has been strengthened by restructuring of centre-state relations.
(ii) Decentralisatlon In India, power has been decentralised to the local government. The local government includes panchayats and municipalities.
(iii) Linguistic States The policy of creating linguistic states has also strengthened federalism. Despite of division, this policy united the nation.
(iv) Language Policy Indian federation did not give status of national language to any language. This ultimately has strengthened federalism.
Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each
Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. We have seen that people obtain loans from various sources. The various types of loans can be grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans. Among the former, some are from banks and cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends, etc. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. For instance, we have seen that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance, Similarly, the RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators,
small-scale industries, to small borrowers, etc.
Periodically, banks have to such information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom at what interest rate, etc. There is no organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector. They can lend at whatever interest rate they choose. There is no one to stop them from using unfair means to get their money back. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.
(i) Explain the formal sources of credit. (1)
(ii) Evaluate any one difference between formal and informal sources of credit. (1)
(iii) State any two functions of RBI in the credit market of India. (2)
Answer:
(i) Formal sources of credit or loans are those that come from banks, non-government establishments, and financial institutions. These are typically recognised as credible lenders by other business enterprises, making their products and services appealing to investors.
(ii) Difference between formal and informal sources of credit- Formal sources typically charge lower interest rates whereas informal sources of credit charge much higher interest rates for informal sources.
(iii) Two functions of RBI are It promotes the integrity, efficiency, inclusiveness, and competitiveness of the financial and payments system. It ensures efficient management of currency as well as banking services to the Government and banks.
Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as the World Bank) was
set up to finance post-war reconstruction: The IMF and the World Bank are referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions or
sometimes the Bretton Woods twins. The post-war international economic system is also often described as the Bretton Woods
system. The ¡MF and the World Bank commenced financial operations in 1947.
Decision-making in these institutions is controlled by the Western industrial powers. The US has an effective right of vote over key IMF and World Bank decisions. The International Monetary System is the system linking national currencies and monetary system. The Bretton Woods system was based on fixed exchange rates.
In this system, national currencies, for example, the Indian rupees were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange rate. The
dollar itself was anchored to gold at a fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold.
(i) What was the reason behind setting up of International Monetary Fund? (1)
Describe the Bretton Woods System. (1)
A significant decision was taken at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire. Explain. (2)
Answer:
(i) The IMF was set up to promote International Monetary Cooperation.
(ii) The Bretton Woods System was based on fixed exchange rates. In this system, national currencies viz. the Indian rupees were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange rate. The dollar used was anchored to gold at a fixed price of $ 35 per ounce of gold.
(iii) In Bretton Woods Conference New Hampshire USA, decisions were taken for establishing World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) to preserve global economical stability and full employment in the industrial world. These institutions would also deal with surplus and deficit of member nations and finance post-war reconstruction.
Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. Through the ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered land-holding size uneconomical, the farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of livelihood. Thus, there is enormous pressure on agricultural land.
The main characteristic of commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs. E.g. High Yielding Variety (HYV)
seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.
The degree of commercialization of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial
crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.
(i) State the ways through which farmers continue to make maximum output from limited land. Mention the name of Indian
states which produce rice commercially. (1+ 1)
(ii) What is the reason behind rice being a subsistence crop in Odisha? (2)
Answer:
(i) Farmers buy agricultural inputs like fertilisers. pesticides, HYV seeds and provide irrigation facilities in their limited land to take maximum output from it. Punjab and Haryana produce rice commercially.
(ii) Rice is considered as subsistence crop in Odisha because it is grown on small patches of land with very little agricultural inputs.
Section F
Section F consists of Map based questions of 5 marks
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2)
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.
B. The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate any three features of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) Meenambakkam Airport (Chennai)
(ii) A major port in Andhra Pradesh
(iii) A Nuclear Power Plant
(iv) Tehri Dam
Answer: