CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:

List I	List II
A. Public sector	1. Government-owned enterprises
B. Disguised unemployment	2. Employment where surplus workers do not add to production
C. Final goods	3. Goods consumed or used directly without further processing
D. Outsourcing	4. Contracting tasks to external agencies

Question 2.
Foreign invasions and internal rebellions weakened the central authority of the Mughals in the 18th century. Which of the following was a major cause of their decline? (1)
(a) Foreign invasions and internal rebellions
(b) Technological backwardness in agriculture
(c) Spread of democratic ideas
(d) Shortage of silver currency
Answer:
(a) Foreign invasions and internal rebellions

Question 3.
The given image depicts the ‘Planting of the Tree of Liberty’ painted by Karl Fritz. In which country the scene took place? Identify from the given options. (1)

(a) Leipzig, Germany
(b) Frankfurt, Germany
(c) Paris, France
(d) Zweibrucken, Germany
Answer:
(c) Paris, France

Question 4.
The term “Cold War” refers to (1)
(a) Direct military contlict between the USA and the USSR
(b) Period of political tension without direct war between the USA and USSR
(c) Ice-age climatic conditions in Europe
(d) Competition between Britain and France for colonies
Answer:
(b) Period of political tension without direct war between the USA and USSR

Question 5.
Explain two main provisions of the Treaty of Versailles. (2)
Or
Gandhi’s “Do or Die” call mobilised masses across India. Explain the statement.
Answer:
The two main provisions of the Treaty of Versailles are

• Territorial Losses for Germany Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine, Eupen-Malmedy, parts of Prussia and all colonies.
• Military Restrictions The Army was limited to 100,000 soldiers, no submarines, tanks, air force, and the Rhineland was demilitarised.

Or
Gandhi’s “Do or Die” call during the Quit India Movement in 1942 inspired widespread national protest against British rule. It united people across India, urging them to fight for independence with determination, even at the cost of their lives, leading to mass participation and civil disobedience.

Question 6.
How did the Polish language become a symbol of resistance against Russian rule? (3)
Or
“Print culture in 19th-century India played a key role in spreading social reform ideas.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
After the Russian occupation in 1831, Polish language was removed from schools and replaced by Russian. However, Polish priests and bishops used their own language in church gatherings and religious teachings, defying Russian orders. Many were jailed or exiled for this resistance. Thus, speaking and teaching Polish became a patriotic act, symbolising resistance to Russian dominance and strengthening national identity.
Or
Print culture in 19th century India played a key role in spreading social reforms ideas in the following ways

• In 19th-century India, print culture expanded through newspapers, journals and pamphlets in multiple languages, making reform ideas accessible to a wide audience.
• Social reformers like Raja Rammohan Roy used printed materials to campaign against practices such as sati and promote women’s education.
• Vernacular presses allowed debates on caste discrimination, widow remarriage, and modern education. Reformist literature reached rural areas, encouraging public discussion.

Question 7.
“Indian participation in the First World War had far-reaching political consequences.” Analyse.
Or
What were the reasons behind the limited involvement of various social groups in the Civil Disobedience Movement? (5)
Answer:
Consequences of First World War were as follows

• India contributed significantly to the Allied war effort in WWI, sending over a million soldiers and vast resources.
• Expectations grew that Britain would grant self-governing rights as a reward. However, post-war realities brought disappointment in terms of high taxes, inflation and repressive measures like the Rowlatt Act.
• Politically, wartime service had widened nationalist aspirations, leading to stronger demands for self-rule. Leaders such as Gandhi began mass movements, starting with the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• The war also exposed India to international ideas of self-determination, inspiring leaders to challenge colonialism more assertively.
• Disillusionment with British policies after the war united moderates and extremists, intensified political activity, and laid the groundwork for sustained nationalist campaigns throughout the 1920s and 1930s.

Or
The reasons behind the limited involvement of various social groups in the Civil Disobedience Movement were as follows

• Rich peasant communities like the Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh joined the movement because falling crop prices made it difficult to pay government revenue.
• Small tenants joined radical movements demanding rent remission, but Congress often avoided supporting them to not upset rich peasants, keeping their participation limited.
• Thousands of women joined marches, picketed foreign goods and went to jail, though their roles remained largely symbolic.
• Workers joined selective strikes and boycotts, but many stayed aloof as Congress avoided their demands to maintain industrialist support.
• Business Classes initially supported the movement to oppose colonial restrictions and promote trade, but fears of disruption reduced their enthusiasm over time.

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
“To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense.” Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through non-violence. In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi. Amongst its leaders were Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh.

In a series of dramatic actions in different parts of India, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power. In April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly. In the same year, there was an attempt to blow up the train that Lord Irwin was travelling in. Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed by the colonial government.

During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society. ‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birthright of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society … To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution. Inquilab Zindabad!”
(i) What does Bhagat Singh’s statement suggest about his view on violence in the struggle for independence? (1)
(ii) What underlying message is conveyed by the metaphor of youth as incense at the revolution’s altar? (1)
(iii) How did the actions of the HSRA reflect their stance on British colonial rule? (2)
Answer:
(i) Bhagat Singh’s statement suggests that he did not wish to glorify violence but he believed that it could be a means to bring social and political revolution.

(ii) The metaphor signifies the dedication and self-sacrifice of young revolutionaries. It portrays their willingness to offer their lives for the revolutionary cause, just as incense is offered in devotion.

(iii) The HSRA’s actions, such as bombing the Legislative Assembly and attempting to attack Lord Irwin’s train, reflected their commitment to actively challenging British authority, rejecting non-violence.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
On the outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols (2)
(a) The place where the movement of Indigo workers took place
(b) The place where the Civil Disobedience movement began

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
Which of the following is a tributary of the Brahmaputra river? (1)
(a) Teesta
(b) Kosi
(c) Chambal
(d) Betwa
Answer:
(a) Teesta

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes. (1)

Major Crops	?	?
Wheat	Cool growing season, even rainfall	Mainly in Punjab, Haryana, UP
Rice	?	Coastal and delta regions

(a) High temperature and rainfall above 100 cm , Assam and West Bengal
(b) High temperature and irrigation facility, Punjab and Haryana
(c) Short cool season and low rainfall, Rajasthan and Gujarat
(d) High temperature and low rainfall, Maharashtra and Karnataka
Answer:
(a) High temperature and rainfall above 100 cm , Assam and West Bengal

Question 12.
In the last decade, the Sundarbans mangrove ecosystem has faced increasing salinity levels. Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of this change? (1)
(a) Decline in agricultural productivity in nearby areas
(b) Increase in freshwater fish population
(c) Expansion of paddy cultivation
(d) Reduction in cyclone frequency
Answer:
(a) Decline in agricultural productivity in nearby areas

Question 13.
Which of the following states is the largest producer of natural rubber in India? (1)
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tripura
Answer:
(b) Kerala

Question 14.
Based on forest cover distribution in India, which of the following statements is correct regarding the state with the highest perceritage of its geographical area under forest cover? (1)
(a) It is Mizoram, with dense forests covering the majority of its land area.
(b) It is Arunachal Pradesh, due to its extensive Himalayan forest belts.
(c) It is Madhya Pradesh, with the largest total forest area but lower percentage cover.
(d) It is Chhattisgarh, known for central Indian tropical forests.
Answer:
(a) It is Mizoram, with dense forests covering the majority of its land area.

Question 15.
Which of the following statements best explains the primary objective of contour ploughing? (1)
(a) To prevent excess water accumulation and water logging in fields.
(b) To reduce soil erosion and runoff on sloped agricultural land.
(c) To improve soil fertility by retaining manure and organic matter.
(d) To enable faster and more efficient harvesting of crops.
Answer:
(b) To reduce soil erosion and runoff on sloped agricultural land.

Question 16.
“Black soil is considered ideal for cotton cultivation. Using your understanding of its characteristics and suitability for crop growth, explain why cotton thrives in this soil type.” (2)
Answer:
Black soil is considered ideal for cotton cultivation due to the following reasons.

• Black soil is rich in clay with moisture-retaining capacity, making it ideal for cotton as it provides essential nutrients like lime, iron, and magnesium.
• Its fine texture supports cotton’s deep roots, while good moisture retention sustains the crop during dry periods, ensuring healthy growth and high-quality fibre production.

Question 17.
The government plans to expand the network of National Waterways in India. Analyse the advantages of promoting inland water transport as a means of freight movement. (5)
Or
“India’s mineral resources play a vital role in industrial growth.” Justify the statement with examples.
Answer:
The advantages of promoting inland water transport as a means of freight movement are as follows

• Inland water transport is cost-effective as it consumes less fuel per tonne-kilometre compared to road or rail transport.
• Transporting goods via rivers and canals produces lower greenhouse gas emissions, making it environmentally sustainable.
• Large volumes of bulk cargo, such as coal, cement, and agricultural produce, can be moved efficiently.
• It supports regional economic development by connecting rural and remote areas to markets.
• Additionally, water transport infrastructure can boost tourism and create jobs in port services. Strengthening this mode aligns with India’s goal of promoting multimodal transport networks.

Or
India’s mineral resources play a vital role in industrial growth in the following ways

• India’s mineral wealth supports a range of industries from coal-powered thermal plants to iron ore feeding steel production.
• Bauxite is essential for the aluminium industry, while mica, limestone, and gypsum serve the electrical and cement sectors.
• Petroleum and natural gas sustain transport, manufacturing, and petrochemicals. The mining sector generates employment and revenue, boosting both regional and national economies.
• Mineral exports contribute to foreign exchange earnings. Minerals also attract foreign investment in processing and manufacturing facilities.
• Efficient exploration, sustainable extraction, and value addition of minerals are crucial for long-term industrial growth and for reducing import dependence. Thus, minerals form the backbone of India’s industrial infrastructure.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
The Himalayan region, known as the “Third Pole,” contains the largest reserves of ice and snow outside the polar regions. These glaciers feed major rivers such as the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus, supporting the water needs of hundreds of millions of people in South Asia. However, rising global temperatures have accelerated glacial melting, leading to glacial lake expansion and increased risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).

Melting glaciers also alter river flow patterns, causing water scarcity during dry months and severe flooding during monsoons. Such changes threaten agriculture, hydropower generation, biodiversity, and human settlements downstream. Communities dependent on these rivers face growing challenges, including displacement, loss of livelihoods, and increased disaster risk.
(i) Why are Himalayan glaciers often called the “water towers” of Asia? (1)
(ii) Explain how climate change-induced glacial melting could affect agriculture and energy production in India. (2)
(iii) Suggest one adaptation measure that can reduce the risks posed by Glacial Lake Outburst floods (GLOFs). (1)
Answer:
(i) Himalayan glaciers are called Asia’s “water towers” because they store vast freshwater reserves and feed major rivers like the Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra, sustaining millions of people across the continent.
(ii) Climate change-induced glacial melting could affect agriculture and energy production in India in the following ways

• Altered river flows lead to water scarcity during dry months and floods during monsoons, damaging crops.
• Irregular river discharge impacts hydropower generation efficiency

(iii) An adaptation measure that can reduce the risks posed by Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF) is the installation of early warning systems for glacial lake flooding.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols

I. (a) The major seaport located in Andhra Pradesh is known as Visakhapatnam.
Or
(b) The major seaport located in Odisha is known as Paradip.

II. Any two of the following
(i) An iron and steel plant in Jharkhand
(ii) A software technology park in Karnataka
(iii) A software technology park in Kerala
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statement(s) are correct regarding the distribution of legislative powers in India?
I. Union List subjects are under Parliament’s exclusive control.
II. State List subjects can be legislated upon by Parliament during a national emergency.
III. Both Union and State governments can legislate on Concurrent List subjects.
IV. Residuary powers rest with the state governments.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Answer:
(a) I, II and III

Question 21.
The image below shows a modern glass-fronted building that serves as the legislative body of the European Union. Which of the following options correctly identifies this building? (1)

(a) European Parliament in Brussels
(b) European Parliament in Delhi
(c) European Palace in London
(d) European President’s Palace in the United Kingdom
Answer:
(a) European Parliament in Brussels

Question 22.
Suppose a State Government decides to change the name and boundaries of a neighbouring state without consulting Parliament. Which of the following options is correct? (1)
(a) It is valid because states have sovereignty.
(b) It is invalid because only Parliament can change state boundaries.
(c) It is valid if both state legislatures agree.
(d) It requires approval from the Supreme Court.
Answer:
(b) It is invalid because only Parliament can change state boundaries

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) The Model Code of Conduct ensures free and fair elections.
Reason (R) It lays down guidelines for political parties and candidates to prevent unfair practices during elections. (1)
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 24.
Mention any two ways in which democracy promotes economic equality. (2)
Answer:
Two ways in which democracy promotes economic equality are as follows

• Democracy promotes economic equality through welfare schemes targeting the poor and marginalised, such as subsidies and public distribution systems.
• It also implements progressive taxation, where higher-income groups contribute more, enabling redistribution of resources to improve the living standards of disadvantaged sections.

Question 25.
“Indian federalism is designed to share power between the Union and the States.” Highlight any two features that reflect this power-sharing arrangement. (2)
Answer:
Two features of Indian federalism to share power between the Union and the States are as follows

• Dual Government System Both the Union and State Governments have separate powers and responsibilities.
• Division of Powers The Constitution clearly divide subjects into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.

Question 26.
“Reforms within political parties are necessary to make democracy more effective.” Support the statement with a suitable example. (2)
Answer:
Reforms within political parties are necessary to make democracy more effective because

• Internal Democracy Most parties lack internal elections and decision-making transparency. Regular internal elections can ensure accountability and reduce authoritarian leadership.
• Transparency in Funding Political parties often receive unaccounted funds. Reforms for transparent funding can curb corruption and promote clean politics.

Question 27.
“Free and fair elections are the cornerstone of democracy.” Support the statement with arguments. (5)
Or
“Electoral reforms are essential to improve the quality of democracy in India.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
Free and fair elections are the cornerstone of democracy in the following ways

• Free and fair elections ensure that citizens can choose their representatives without fear or coercion.
• They guarantee equal voting rights, secret ballots, and impartial election management. Institutions like the Election

Commission enforce rules to prevent malpractice, ensuring candidates compete on a level playing field.

• Transparent counting of votes builds public trust in the outcome.
• Free elections empower citizens to hold leaders accountable and influence governance. When elections are fair, governments reflect the will of the people, strengthening legitimacy.
• Transparent and fair elections prevent concentration of power and ensure checks and balances in governance.

Or
Electoral reforms are essential to improve the quality of democracy in India in the following ways.

• Electoral reforms enhance the credibility and fairness of elections. Measures such as the introduction of VVPAT and EVMs ensure transparency and accuracy in vote counting.
• Capping election expenses and mandating disclosure of candidate assets reduces the undue influence of money.
• Strict enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) curbs unfair practices.
• Debarring candidates with criminal records from contesting improves the quality of representation.
• Promoting voter awareness and participation increases legitimacy. Continuous reforms adapt to emerging challenges, ensuring elections remain a true reflection of the people’s will and strengthening the democratic fabric of the nation.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
“Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Expectations from democracy also function as the criteria for judging any democratic country. What is most distinctive about democracy is that its examination never ends. As democracy passes one test, it produces another test. As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better. That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy.”
(i) How does democracy promote dignity and freedom? (1)
(ii) What role does recognition play in addressing societal inequalities like those based on gender and caste? (1)
(iii) Why does the passage suggest that complaints about democracy are a sign of its success? (2)
Answer:
(i) Democracy promotes dignity and freedom by ensuring equal rights for all individuals and freedom of expression, participation and choice.

(ii) Recognition in democracy strengthens legal and moral foundations against gender and caste inequalities. It empowers marginalised groups through various acts and policies.

(iii) Complaints about democracy show citizens’ awareness and expectations. They reflect their active engagement in shaping governance and holding power accountable. This is essential for democratic progress and responsiveness.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Person K says that per capita income is not enough to measure development because it hides certain realities. Which argument supports this view? (1)
(a) It ignores inequality, health and education levels.
(b) It measures environmental quality.
(c) It ensures equal wealth distribution.
(d) It includes the happiness index.
Answer:
(a) It ignores inequality, health and education levels.

Question 30.
Which statement best supports the claim that the tertiary sector has become more important in India? Choose the correct option as the answer. (1)
(a) It now contributes the largest share to GDP and supports the functioning of other sectors.
(b) It produces the maximum agricultural output in the country.
(c) It has completely replaced manufacturing jobs in India.
(d) It relies solely on imported technology for its growth.
Answer:
(a) It now contributes the largest share to GDP and supports the functioning of other sectors.

Question 31.
A farmer borrows from a cooperative bank to purchase high-yield seeds. This is an example of (1)
(a) Informal credit with high interest
(b) Formal credit for productive use
(c) Informal credit without documentation
(d) Formal credit creates debt traps
Answer:
(b) Formal credit for productive use

Question 32.
Which policy change reduces restrictions on trade and investment between countries? (1)
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Outsourcing
Answer:
(c) Liberalisation

Question 33.
Which of the following indicators measures both economic progress and social well-being of a country? (1)
(a) GDP is the total value of goods and services produced in a country.
(b) Per capita income, which measures the average income earned per person.
(c) Inflation rate, which tracks the rise in prices of goods and services.
(d) HDI, which combines life expectancy, education, and income levels to assess development.
Answer:
(d) HDI, which combines life expectancy, education, and income levels to assess development.

Question 34.
Match the following.

Answer:
(d) 1 2 3 4

List I	List II
A. Public sector	1. Government-owned enterprises
B. Disguised unemployment	2. Employment where surplus workers do not add to production
C. Final goods	3. Goods consumed or used directly without further processing
D. Outsourcing	4. Contracting tasks to external agencies

Question 35.
Evaluate the role of multinational corporations (MNCs) in the spread of globalisation. (3)
Answer:
The role of multinational corporations (MNCs) in the spread of globalisation is as follows

• MNCs drive globalisation by setting up production units across multiple countries, integrating economies.
• They bring foreign investment, advanced technology, and managerial practices. By sourcing raw materials globally and selling in various markets, they connect producers and consumers worldwide.
• MNCs encourage competition, improve quality, and create jobs. However, they can also dominate markets, affecting local firms.

Question 36.
‘Education is a long-term investment with social as well as economic returns.’ Justify the statement. (3)
Answer:
Education is a long-term investment with social as well as economic returns due to the following reasons.

• Education enhances an individual’s skills, enabling higher productivity and better job prospects, which boosts income. Socially, it promotes awareness, civic participation, and healthier lifestyles.
• Educated populations make informed decisions, support democratic values, and reduce social inequalities.
• Education also encourages gender equality and improves community well-being.

Question 37.
Highlight three key functions of the Reserve Bank of India in regulating credit. (3)
Answer:
The three key functions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in regulating credit are as follows

• Controlling Money Supply RBI uses monetary tools to maintain liquidity balance.
• Regulating Interest Rates It adjusts its monetary policy to influence borrowing.
• Supervising Banks RBI monitors lending norms and reserves to ensure financial stability.

Question 38.
A government launches a scheme to provide free healthcare in rural areas.Analyse its likely impact on development indicators. (5)
Or
Trade liberalisation can benefit developing countries but also create challenges. Support this statement with arguments.
Answer:
The impact of the government scheme to provide healthcare in rural areas are as follows

• Free healthcare can improve life expectancy, reduce infant and maternal mortality and enhance overall health status.
• Healthy populations are more productive, leading to higher incomes and economic growth. Reduced medical expenses free up household resources for education, nutrition, and housing.
• It also addresses inequality by ensuring access for the poor, narrowing the development gap between rural and urban areas.
• Preventive care reduces the burden on hospitals, improving efficiency. Over time, healthier communities can better utilise education and employment opportunities, breaking the cycle of poverty.
• The scheme, if implemented effectively, can significantly raise the Human Development Index by improving both health and income-related indicators.

Or
Trade liberalisation can benefit developing countries but also create challenges in following ways

• Liberalisation opens markets and encourages exports, foreign investment, and technology transfer.
• Producers gain access to larger markets, improving efficiency and competitiveness.
• Consumers benefit from greater variety and lower prices. However, exposure to global competition can hurt small and unprepared industries, leading to job losses. Dependence on imports may weaken domestic production.

Price fluctuations in global markets can affect economic stability. Without adequate infrastructure, skill development and supportive policies, benefits remain uneven.
Thus, while trade liberalisation can accelerate growth, it requires safeguards and capacity building measures to ensure gains are inclusive and sustainable for developing economies.