CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following

List I	List II
A. Subhas Chandra Bose	1. No Indian members
B. Simon Commission	2. Indian National Army (INA)
C. Poona Pact	3. Reservation for Depressed Classes
D. Civil Disobedience Movement	4. Salt March and boycott of goods

Answer:
(a) 2 1 3 4

Question 2.
The Khilafat Movement was launched in India to (1)
(a) Demand self-rule for India.
(b) Protect the Ottoman Caliph’s authority.
(c) Boycott British goods.
(d) Oppose the Simon Commission.
Answer:
(b) Protect the Ottoman Caliph’s authority

Stage II: Proficiency Level

Question 3.
What does the given image mainly highlight about book production in the 16th century? (1)

(a) Books were copied mechanically to save time.
(b) Knowledge was preserved through oral tradition only.
(c) Manuscripts were painstakingly written and illustrated by hand.
(d) Paper was imported from Europe for book-making.
Answer:
(c) Manuscripts were painstakingly written and illustrated by hand

Question 4.
The term ‘Allies’ in the First World War referred to (1)
(a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Ottoman Empire.
(b) Britain, France, Russia, and later the USA.
(c) Italy, Germany, Japan.
(d) France, Spain, Portugal.
Answer:
(b) Britain, France, Russia and later the USA

Question 5
“Gandhiji withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922.” Explain with two reasons. (2)
Or
“The Civil Disobedience Movement had a wider social base compared to earlier movements.” Explain the statement.
Answer:
The two reasons behind the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation movement by Gandhiji were as follows

• The movement was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent clash led to the death of policemen.
• Gandhiji feared the spread of violence would harm the moral basis of the struggle, so he decided to call off the movement to preserve non-violent discipline.

Or
The Civil Disobedience Movement had a wider social base compared to earlier movements. For example

• This movement drew participacion from peasants, merchants, women and workers.
• It addressed diverse issues suich as the salt tax, land revenue demands and the boycott of foreign goods, connecting different sections of Indian society to the nationalist cause and making it broader in scope than earlier struggles.

Question 6.
“The idea of liberal nationalism in early 19th century Europe was based on certain beliefs.” Support the statement with suitable arguments. (3)
Or
“The 1848 revolutions reflected the political demands of the middle class.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
The idea of liberal nationalism in early 19th century Europe was based on certain beliefs in following ways

• Liberal nationalism upheld the principles of individual freedom, equality before the law and the creation of representative governments.
• It called for the removal of privileges enjoyed by the aristocracy and the clergy. Economically, it demanded the abolition of state-imposed restrictions, free markets, and a uniform system of weights, measures, and currency to encourage trade.
• The middle class, especially business and professional groups, strongly supported these ideas, believing they would promote both political liberty and economic growth in Europe during this period.

Or
The 1848 revolutions reflected the political demands of the middle class in the following ways

• The 1848 revolutions across Europe were primarily led by the liberal middle class, which demanded constitutional governments and elected parliaments.
• They sought civil liberties, including freedom of the press and equality before the law. In the German states, the Frankfurt Parliament was convened to draft a constitution for a unified nation under a constitutional monarchy.
• These uprisings demonstrated the growing desire for political reform and national unification. Although many of these revolutions were suppressed, they marked an important stage in the growth of liberal-nationalist movements.

Question 7.
“The Great Depression of 1929-33 had a severe impact on India.” Analyse the statement.(5)
Or
“The First World War created new economic and political situations in India.” Highlight its effects.
Answer:
The Great Depression of 1929-33 severely impacted India in several ways. For example

• Fall in Agricultural Prices Global demand collapsed, causing sharp declines in prices of cash crops like wheat, cotton and jute, which reduced farmers’ incomes drastically.
• Rising Rural Debt With falling earnings, farmers relied heavily on loans, increasing their indebtedness.
• Decline in Exports International trade shrank, leading to a steep fall in exports of Indian agricultural and industrial goods.
• Unemployment Reduced production in both agriculture and industry caused widespread job losses.
• Hardship for Peasants Many peasants failed to pay taxes and rents, forcing them into distress sales of land and livestock.

Or
The First World War created new economic and political situations in India in the following ways

• Economic Impact War expenses were financed by heavy taxes, rising prices and increased imports and exports. Inflation burdened the common people.
• Industrial Growth Demand for goods like textiles, jute and steel rose as imports from Britain declined, leading to the growth of Indian industries.
• Agricultural Pressure Farmers faced higher demands for grain and raw materials, often without fair compensation.
• Political Awakening The war exposed India to global political ideas and fueled demands for self-governance.
• Nationalist Movement Leaders like Gandhi, Tilak and Annie Besant intensified campaigns, preparing the ground for mass movements.

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions In 1926, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein, a noted educationist and literary figure, strongly condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion as she addressed the Bengal Women’s Education Conference. ‘The opponents of female education say that women will become unruly … Fie! They call themselves Muslims and yet go against the basic tenet of Islam, which gives Women an equal right to education. If men are not led astray once educated, why should women?
(i) How did Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein advocate for women’s education in her speech at the Bengal Women’s Education Conference in 1926? (1)
(ii) How did Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein challenge religious opposition to female education? (1)
(iii) What can we infer about Begum Rokeya’s role in social reform? Mention any two points.
Answer: (2)
(i) Begum Rokeya passionately advocated for women’s education, invoking Islamic principles to support equal educational opportunities for women.

(ii) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat challenged religious opposition by highlighting Islam’s support for women’s education, emphasising its endorsement of equal educational rights.

(iii) Begum Rokeya’s role in social reform were as follows:

• She was a fearless advocate for women’s rights and education.
• She used logical and religious arguments to challenge regressive social norms.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2)
A. The place where peasants struggled due to plague and crop failure in 1918.
B. The place where the December 1920 session of the Indian National Congress took place.

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
Which of the following statements best defines the concept of resource planning in India? (1)
(a) Making a list of all available resources.
(b) Exploiting natural resources fully.
(c) Identifying and matching resources with development plans.
(d) Converting forests into farmland.
Answer:
(c) Identifying and matching resources with development plans

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes. (1)

Multi-purpose Projects
Hirakud	Built across the Mahanadi River	Provides irrigation & flood control
Bhakra-Nangal	Built across the Sutlej River	?

(a) Provides hydel power, Supplies drinking water
(b) Provides hydel power, Supports navigation
(c) Provides irrigation, Hydel power generation
(d) Flood control, Irrigation facility
Answer:
(c) Provides irrigation, Hydel power generation

Question 12.
Several Indian cities have recently faced severe air pollution during winter. What is the most significant indirect consequence of this problem? (1)
(a) Increase in rice production.
(b) Improved forest cover.
(c) Rise in respiratory illnesses and burden on health care.
(d) Reduced literacy levels.
Answer:
(c) Rise in respiratory illnesses and burden on healthcare

Question 13.
Which of the following best classifies the Indian Railways in terms of ownership and function? (1)
(a) Private sector, commercial purpose
(b) Cooperative sector, urban transportation only
(c) Public sector, national-level transportation network
(d) Joint sector, only for goods movement
Answer:
(c) Public sector, national-level transportation network

Question 14.
Based on road network distribution, which of the following statements would most likely apply to the state with the highest road density in India? (1)
(a) It has a compact area with well-connected rural and urban roads.
(b) It has vast desert terrain with limited road infrastructure.
(c) It primarily depends on seasonal tracks and unpaved roads.
(d) It has large forest cover restricting road expansion.
Answer:
(a) It has a compact area with well-connected rural and urban roads.

Question 15.
Which of the following best reflects the objective of the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)? (1)
(a) Promote the fishing industry in rivers
(b) Regulate and develop India’s inland waterways for transport
(c) Construct bridges over all major rivers
(d) Develop canals for irrigation
Answer:
(b) Regulate and develop India’s inland waterways for transport

Question 16.
Tea cultivation is mainly concentrated in the North-Eastern and Southern hill regions of India. Using your understanding of geographical factors, explain two reasons why tea grows well in these areas. (2)
Answer:
Tea grows well in North-Eastern and Southern hill regions of India because

• Tea requires well-drained, humid and sloping land, found in hill regions.
• The climate of North-Eastern and South India (high rainfall, moderate temperature) is ideal for tea growth.

Question 17.
“An entrepreneur is planning to set up a large-scale cement manufacturing plant in the state of Chhattisgarh. Considering the availability of raw materials, power resources, market access and other favourable conditions, explain why Chhattisgarh would be a suitable location for establishing a cement industry.” (5)
Or
“Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture but also reduce the dependence on agricultural income.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Chhattisgarh is suitable for establishing a cement industry due to the following reasons

• The state has abundant deposits of high-quality limestone, which is the primary raw material for cement production.
• It also has significant coal reserves that provide an easy and economical source of fuel and electricity for running the plant.
• The location offers proximity to major markets in central and Eastern India, reducing transportation costs for finished products.
• A well-developed network of railways and roads ensures the smooth movement of raw materials and cement.
• Additionally, the state government promotes industrial growth through supportive policies, incentives, and infrastructure development.
• These advantages make Chhattisgarh an ideal and cost-effective location for establishing a cement manufacturing unit.

Or
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture but also reduce the dependence on agricultural income in the following ways

• Agro-based industries play a vital role in strengthening the rural economy by processing raw materials obtained directly from farms, such as sugarcane for sugar and cotton for textiles.
• These industries create employment opportunities for local people, thereby improving rural income levels and living standards.
• In turn, industrial products like agricultural machinery, fertilisers and pesticides help boost farm productivity and efficiency.
• By providing alternative sources of livelihood, agro-industries reduce the over-dependence of rural communities on farming alone, making incomes more stable.
• They also encourage the growth of related sectors such as transport, trade and services, which . further promote urbanisation in nearby areas.

Question 18.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions
“The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas. Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy. Moreover, increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems. Hence, there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy from waste material. These are called non-conventional energy sources. India is blessed with an abundance of sunlight, water, wind and biomass. It has the largest programmes for the development of these renewable energy resources.
(i) Why is there a pressing need to use renewable energy sources in India? (1)
(ii) What is the potential of solar energy in India, and how is it beneficial? (1)
(iii) What are the benefits of biogas plants in rural India? (2)
Answer:
(i) There is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources as there is a shortage of fossil fuels, rising prices of coal, oil and gas and serious environmental problems.

(ii) India has high solar potential as it is a tropical country. It is beneficial because solar energy reduces dependence on firewood, also aid to environmental conservation.

(iii) Biogas plants offer significant benefits in rural India by providing a reliable source of energy and enhancing manure quality. This reduces the need for fuel wood and dung cakes, helping to conserve trees and prevent environmental degradation.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols.
I. (a) The cotton textile industry in Maharashtra. (1)
Or
(b) The cotton textile industry in Tamil Nadu. (2)

II. Any two of the following.
(i) An international airport in Hyderabad.
(ii) An international airport in Kolkata.
(iii) A major seaport in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the division of powers in the Indian Constitution? (1)
I. The Union List contains subjects of national importance like defence, foreign affairs and currency.
II. The State List contains subjects like police, trade, agriculture and irrigation.
III. The Concurrent List contains subjects like education and marriage.
IV. Only the Union Government can legislate on subjects in the Concurrent List.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) 1 and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II and III

Question 21.
The cartoon given below highlights which political practice in India? (1)

(a) Coalition governments formed after elections.
(b) Reservation policy in education and jobs.
(c) Mobilisation of voters on the basis of caste identities.
(d) Election campaigns focused on economic reforms.
Answer:
(c) Mobilisation of voters on the basis of caste identities

Question 22.
Suppose the Government of India plans to introduce a new national currency symbol. A State government disagrees with the design and wants to block its use in the State. Can it stop the Union Government from implementing it? (1)
(a) Yes, because Currency is in the State List
(b) No, because Currency is in the Union List
(c) Yes, because the consent of the State is necessary
(d) No, because it must be approved by the High Court first
Answer:
(b) No, because Currency is in the Union List

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) The creation of linguistic States has strengthened national unity in India.
Reason (R) Recognising linguistic diversity has reduced separatist tendencies and made administration easier.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
Highlight any two special provisions provided to certain States under the Indian Constitution. (2)
Answer:
Two special provisions provided to certain States under the Indian Constitution are as follows

• Nagaland and Mizoram have special powers to protect indigenous customs, land, and resources. Earlier, Jammu & Kashmir had its own constitution and autonomy in many matters.
• These provisions recognise India’s diversity and safeguard unique regional identities while maintaining unity in the federal structure.

Question 25.
Mention any two measures taken to improve women’s representation in Indian politics. (2)
Answer:
Two measures taken to improve women’s representation in Indian politics are as follows

• One-third of seats in Panchayats and Municipalities are reserved for women.
• Political parties are encouraged to give more tickets to women candidates.

Question 26.
“Local governments deepen democracy in India.” Support this statement with suitable arguments.(3)
Answer:
Local governments deepen democracy in India in the following ways

• Local governments like Panchayats and Municipalities bring decision-making closer to the people.
• They address local needs effectively, ensure community participation, and promote accountability.
• Reservations for women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes provide inclusive representation.
• By managing local resources and development projects, they strengthen grassroots democracy and make governance more responsive.
• These institutions also serve as a training ground for new leaders and help citizens directly influence policies affecting their lives. Thereby deepening the democratic process in both rural and urban areas.

Question 27.
“Federalism has strengthened democracy in India.” Explain. (5)
Or
“Political parties face multiple challenges in India.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
Federalism has strengthened democracy in India in the following ways

• Federalism in India divides powers between the Union, the State, and local governments, ensuring that authority is not concentrated at one level.
• It accommodates regional diversity by recognising linguistic states and granting special provisions to certain areas.
• Coalition governments and the rise of regional parties have increased State influence in national policies, making governance more cooperative.
• The creation of the third tier of local governments has brought power closer to citizens. Constitutional safeguards, such as an independent judiciary and a clear division of subjects, maintain balance between levels.
• Together, these elements have enhanced unity, improved governance and deepened democracy across the country.

Or
Political parties face multiple challenges in India in the following ways

• Political parties in India face challenges like dynastic succession, where leadership remains within families, reducing internal democracy.
• Many parties suffer from centralised decision-making, limiting grassroots participation. Money and muscle power influence candidate selection and elections, weakening fair competition.
• Ideological differences between parties have narrowed, leaving voters with limited policy choices.
• There is also a growing disconnect between parties and public needs, affecting credibility.
• Addressing these issues requires reforms in funding transparency, stronger internal elections, stricter anti-defection laws and citizen engagement in party decision-making, so parties can function as true representatives of democratic aspirations and public interest.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the following questions
Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy appeals to some of our deep values. These debates cannot be resolved in a simple manner. But some debates about democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures. The debate about the economic outcomes of democracy is one such debate.

Over the years, many students of democracy have gathered careful evidence to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities. A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no difference. One can easily infer that there is often inequality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.

(i) Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis? (1)
(ii) Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a small proportion of its population, while a larger proportion has to settle for the remaining small portion of the national income. What is strongly indicated by this fact? (1)
(iii) Differentiate between democracy and a dictatorship form of government. (2)
Answer:
(i) The economic outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figure analysis.
(ii) The given fact indicates that poorer sections are often ridden with unequal opportunities.
(iii) The differences between democracy and a dictatorship form of government are as follows

Democracy	Dictatorship
In a democratic form of government, the head of the country is elected by the people in the form of votes through a general election.	In a dictatorship form of government, the sole authority lies with one individual and no institution can keep a check over his powers.
The political control is provided through free and fair elections conducted after completion of a fixed tenure.	Elections didn’t take place place in such forms of government as it restricts political parties and associations.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Underemployment in rural non-farm activities is seen when (1)
(a) More workers are engaged than necessary, lowering productivity.
(b) Workers are employed in highly specialised jobs.
(c) All workers are paid equally regardless of output.
(d) Work is available only for skilled labour.
Answer:
(a) More workers are engaged than necessary, lowering productivity

Question 30.
What is the main drawback of using life expectancy alone to measure development? Choose the correct option. (1)
(a) It reflects only health conditions, not income or education.
(b) It measures only economic growth.
(c) It includes income distribution.
(d) It fully represents all human needs.
Answer:
(a) It reflects only health conditions, not income or education.

Question 31.
Which of the following examples best shows how the tertiary sector supports global trade? (1)
(a) A farmer sells wheat in the local market.
(b) A shipping company transports goods from India to Europe for exporters.
(c) A tailor stitches clothes for neighbours.
(d) A potter sells clay pots in a village fair.
Answer:
(b) A shipping company transports goods from India to Europe for exporters.

Question 32.
Which institution sets global trade rules and monitors trade agreements? (1)
(a) World Bank
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) International Monetary Fund
Answer:
(b) World Trade Organisation

Question 33.
Person M explains how MNCs integrate production across countries. Which justification is correct? (1)
(a) They split production stages across nations to reduce costs and reach markets.
(b) They produce everything in one country to avoid transport costs.
(c) They focus only on domestic markets.
(d) They avoid foreign investment.
Answer:
(a) They split production stages across nations to reduce costs and reach markets.

Question 34.
Match the following. (1)

List I	List II
A. Per capita income	1. Integration of ideas, customs, and values across borders
B. Trade liberalisation	2. Average income per person in a country
C. Cultural exchange	3. Removing barriers to imports and exports
D. Foreign investment	4. Purchase of assets in another country to earn profits

Answer:
(d) 2 3 1 4

Question 35.
Evaluate the role of education in improving human development indicators. (3)
Answer:
The role of education in improving human development indicators are as follows

• Education equips people with knowledge and skills, enabling better job opportunities and higher incomes.
• It promotes awareness about health, rights and civic duties, improving life expectancy and social participation. Literate populations adapt more quickly to technological changes, thus boost productivity.
• Education also empowers women, leading to better family health and reduced child mortality. Fostering equality, innovation, and informed decision-making raises overall human development.

Combined with healthcare and income growth, education ensures long-term, sustainable improvement in living standards across all sections of society.

Question 36.
‘Globalisation has increased consumer choices, but its benefits are not evenly distributed.’ Justify this statement. (3)
Answer:
Globalisation has increased consumer choices, but its benefits are not evenly distributed due to the following reason

• Globalisation allows consumers access to a wider variety of goods and services from around the world, often at competitive prices.
• MNCs bring advanced technology and new products, raising quality and options. However, benefits concentrate in urban, skilled and well-connected regions.
• Small producers and rural consumers may face reduced market share, job insecurity or limited access to imported goods.

Three ways in which foreign trade benefits producers in developing countries are as follows

• It allows producers to sell goods in international markets, increasing demand and revenue.
• It enables access to cheaper or better-quality raw materials from abroad, lowering production costs.
• Exposure to foreign markets encourages producers to improve quality, efficiency and innovation to meet global standards.

The factors that explain difference between two states are as follows:

• Per capita income reflects only the average earnings per person, while the Human Development Index includes health and education indicators.
• A state with better healthcare facilities, higher life expectancy and lower infant mortality will score higher in HDI.
• Similarly, higher literacy rates, better school enrollment, and quality of education contribute to better HDI rankings.
• Access to clean water, sanitation and social security schemes also improves human development outcomes.
• Even with similar incomes, disparities in public service delivery and equitable distribution of resources can lead to significant differences in quality of life, explaining why one state outperforms the other in HDI.

Or
Outsourcing has become a major feature of globalisation in the following ways

• Outsourcing means hiring services or manufacturing from external, often overseas, suppliers to reduce costs and improve efficiency.
• Globalisation has enabled companies to outsource call centres, IT services, data processing and manufacturing to countries with lower labour costs but skilled workforces, like India.
• For example, Indian firms handle customer support for foreign companies, and electronics components are produced in multiple countries before assembling.
• Outsourcing allows businesses to focus on core activities, expand global reach, and access specialised skills.
• However, it may also lead to job loss in the home country and dependence on external suppliers, thus requir careful management to balance benefits and risks.

Question 37.
Highlight three ways foreign trade benefits producers in developing countries. (3)

Question 38.
Two states have similar per capita income, but one ranks much higher in the Human Development Index. Analyse the factors that might explain this difference. (5)
Or
Outsourcing has become a major feature of globalisation. Support this statement with suitable examples and arguments.