Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
-
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying S marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions arid are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
SectionA
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each
Question 1.
During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did the Rowlatt Act arouse popular outrage? (1)
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion.
(b) It curbed trade union activities.
(c) It was against the Champaran Satyagraha.
(d) It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Answer:
During the Indian freedom struggle, the Rowlatt Act allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Question 2.
Identify the correct statements regarding the Act of Union. (1)
I. It was signed in 1707.
II. It was signed between England and Scotland.
III. It resulted in the establishment of democracy in Scotland.
IV. It resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Codes
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, III, and IV
Question 3.
Why was reading the manuscript not easy in India? Choose the correct answer from the following options. (1)
(a) Manuscripts were highly cheap.
(b) Manuscripts were widely spread out.
(c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi.
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
Answer:
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
Question 4.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the nation of Poland? (1)
I. Poland was partitioned in the 18th century.
II. Poland was ruled by Russia, and Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle against Russian Dominance.
III. With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people ended as well.
Codes
(a) Only I
(b) Both II and IT
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III
Answer:
(b) Both I and II
Question 5.
Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj Party from the options given below. (1)
(a) It wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.
(b) It wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.
(c) It wanted members of Congress to oppose the Simon Commission.
(d) It wanted members of Congress to ask the Dominion State for India.
Answer:
(a) It wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.
Question 6.
Following is the image of crop cultivation which is used both as food and fodder. It is a Kharif crop which requires temperature
between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. Identify the crop from the given options. (1)
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Bajra
(d) Rice
Answer:
(c) Bajra
Question 7.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence (land degradation by %). (1)
I. Forest degraded area
II. Water eroded area
III. Wind eroded area
IV. Saline and alkaline deposits
Codes
(a) I, III, IV, II
(b) II, I, ¡II, IV
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) II, III, IV, I
Answer:
(b) II, I, III, IV
Question 8.
Identify the following crop with the help of given clues. (1)
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country
Initially, its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills.
It is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Millets
Answer:
(b) Coffee
Question 9.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes given below.
Assertion (A) Pulses are grown in rotation with other crops.
Reason (R) It helps in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. (1)
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 10.
Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets? (1)
(a) Urad and Arhar
(b) Maize and Wheat
(c) Bajra and Ragi
(d) Sesamum and Groundnut
Answer:
(c) Bajra and Ragi
Question 11.
Identify the correct statement(s) about unitary form of government. (1)
Statement I There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Central Government.
Statement II The Central Government can pass an orders to the Provincial Government.
Statement III Laws made by the centre are equally enforced in rest of the states without territorial distinction.
Statement IV The powers of State Governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Codes
(a) Statement I and II are right
(b) Statement II and III are right
(c) Statement I, II and III are right
(d) Only Statement IV is right
Answer:
(c) Statement I, II and III are right
Question 12.
Which among the following is known as a system of checks and balances? (1)
(a) The Supreme Court Judges can check the powers of the High Court Judges.
(b) The President of India appoints the Prime Minister and further thc Prime Minister checks the powers of the President.
(c) The judges are appointed by the Executive and further judges can check the functioning of Executive or laws made by the Legislature.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) The judges are appointed by the Executive and further judges can check the functioning of Executive or laws made by the Legislature.
Question 13.
Suppose your teacher has given you the assignment regarding power arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka. According to you
which of these following statements are appropriate for helping you in preparing your assignment? (1)
I. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French-speaking community
II. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority.
III. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their culture, language and equality
of opportunity in education and jobs.
IV. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Codes
(a) I, II, III, and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II, and IV
(d) II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) II, III, and IV
Question 14.
Annette studies in a Dutch Medium School in the Northern region of Belgium. Many French-speaking students in her school want the medium of instruction to be French. Her parents approach towards the respective government to realise the desire of the child. What could be the measure Belgian Government will adopt in such a situation? (1)
(a) Majoritarian Measures
(b) Policy of Accommodation
(c) Despotic Measures
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Policy cf Accommodation
Question 15.
As a student of economics, identify which among the following cannot be purchased through money. (1)
I. Full protection from infectious diseases
II. A pollution-free atmosphere
III. High-quality education
IV. A luxury home
Codes
(a) 1 and III
(b) III and 1V
(c) I and IV
(d) I and II
Answer:
(d) I and II
Question 16.
Read the following data and select the appropriate option from the following. (1)
State | Infant Mortality Rate per 1,000 Iive Births (2017) | Literacy Rate % 2017-18 | Net Attendance Ratio (Per 100 persons) secondary stage (age 14 and 15 years) 2017-18 |
Haryana | 30 | 82 | 61 |
Kerala | 10 | 94 | 83 |
Bihar | 35 | 62 | 43 |
Why Bihar has high infant mortality rate as compared to other states? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) Due to lack of health facilities
(b) Due to lack of education facilities
(c) Low guidance
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Question 17.
Identify the sector of the economy with the help of the given information. (1)
It covers activities in which primary goods are used to produce some other commodity.
This sector mainly includes services such as manufacturing, construction, gas, water, electricity supply, etc.
It produces more than half of the total country’s output.
The employees of this sector are less than half of the working population.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Secondary sector
Question 18.
Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank and UNDP? (1)
(a) Health Status
(b) Gold Reserves
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Educational Levels
Answer:
(c) Per Capita Income
Question 19.
How GDP is calculated? (1)
(a) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years provides the total production of the sector for that year.
(b) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(c) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(d) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.
Answer:
(b) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
Question 20.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment the most? Select the correct option. (1)
(a) Factory workers
(b) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned farmlands.
(c) Private company owners and employees.
(d) Government officials
Answer:
(b) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned farmlands.
Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each
Question 21.
Study the map thoroughly and mention the sub-groups that are dominantly found in this country. (2)
Answer:
The sub-groups that are dominantly found in Sri Lanka are Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
Question 22.
What is the main criterion used by World Bank in classifying different countries? (2)
Answer:
The World Bank uses the criterion of per capita income for classifying countries. Countries with income of US $ 2500 or less were classified as low per capita income countries. Countries with per capita income US$ 49300 per annum and above in 2019 are classified as high-income countries
Question 23.
What was an ‘Accordion Book’? Describe any one feature of hand printing in China. (1+1) (2)
Or
Describe the effects of reading mania.
Answer:
Accordion Book’ was the traditional book of China. It was folded and stitched at the side. This book was hand-printed.
Books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of woodblocks is the feature of hand printing in China.
Or
The following points show the effect of reading mania
- Booksellers roamed around for selling almanacs ballads, folktales, etc.
- Penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars in England for a penny.
- In France, ‘Bibliotheque Bleue, which were low-priced small books were printed.
- Newspapers, journals containing information started circulating.
- Texts containing ideas of scientists and philosophers became popular among the masses.
Question 24.
State any two factors which make forest a very useful resource for humans. (2)
Answer:
The following factors make forest a very useful resource for humans
- Forests provide raw materials like resins, gums, wood, etc for many industries, like paper industry, chemical industry, etc.
- Forests hold the soil firmly and prevent soil erosion. They also help in bringing rainfall and cool the environment.
Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each
Question 25.
What were the causes of the ethnic conflict in Belgium? (3)
Answer:
The causes of the ethnic conflict in Belgium were as follows
- The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community.
- The Dutch-speaking community got the benefit of economic development and education much later than the French-speaking community.
- This led to conflict between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.
- There was a great social disparity between Dutch and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.
Question 26.
Development goals of a person is different from another person. Justify the statement. (3)
Answer:
Different persons have different notìons of development because life situations of different persons are different. For example, development goals of a girl from a rich urban family will surely be different from a girl of farmer family of a village. It is because their situations, lifestyle, and status are very different from each other.
A goal of a person is something, which is entirely dependent on his or her present life situation. Over a period of time, if the situation changes, automatically goals of a person will also get changed.
Question 27.
Rahul wants to grow wheat, jowar, and brinjal on his land. However, these crops are grown in different cropping seasons. In this context, what are the cropping seasons in India? (3)
Or
Why is subsistence agriculture still practiced in certain parts of the country? Give three reasons.
Answer:
India has three cropping seasons. These are as follows Rabi Season These crop are sown in winter from October to December and harvested from April to June.
Kharif Season These crops are sown with the onset of monsoon (June-July) in different parts of the country and are harvested in September-October.
Zaid Season It comes in between the Rabi and Kharif seasons. It is a short season during the summer months.
Or
The three reasons due to which subsistence agriculture is still practiced are
- Plots of land are fragmented and small, so large-scale farming cannot be done.
- Large number of family members in rural areas depend on agriculture which makes it necessary to grow crops for self-consumption.
- Poor farmers do not have the resources to buy better inputs like fertilisers, pesticides, irrigation, facilities, and other modern means.
Question 28.
The following table gives the GÐP in rupees (crores) by the three sectors
Year | Primary | Secondary | Tertiary |
2000 | 52,000 | 48,500 | 1,33,500 |
2013 | 8,00,500 | 10,74,000 | 38,68,000 |
(i) Calculate the share of the three sectors in GDP for 2000 and 2013.
(ii) What conclusions can we draw from the calculations? (3)
Answer:
(i) Share of sectors in GDP for 2000
Total GDP of three sectors
= (52000 + 48500 + 1,33,500)
= 234000 crore
Share of Primary sector
\( \frac{52,000}{2,34,000} \times 100\) = 22.22%
Share of Secondary sector
= \(\frac{48,500}{2,34,000} \times 100\) =20.72%
Share of Tertiary sector
= \(\frac{1,33,500}{2,34,000} \times 100 \)=57%
Share of sectors in GDP for 2013
Total GDP of three sectors
=₹ (8,00,500 – 10,74,000 + 38,68000)
= ₹ 57,42,500 crore
Share of Primary sector
= \(\frac{8,00,500}{57,42,500} \times 100\) =13.93%
Share of Secondary sector
= \(\frac{10,74,000}{57,42,500} \times 100 \) =18.70%
Shae of Tertiary sector
= \(\frac{38,68,000}{57,42,500} \times 100\) = 67.35%
(ii) Conclusions drawn from the bar diagram are
Share of Primary sector in GDP has decreased.
Share of Secondary sector in GDP also decreased.
Share of the Tertiary sector in GDP has increased.
Question 29.
Why did Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down in cities? Explain two reasons. (3)
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement in the cities gradually slowed down for the following reasons
(i) Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. Thus, boycott of foreign goods could not continue for long.
(ii) Similarly, the boycott of British institutions posed a problem. No alternative institutions were set up in their place. So, the students, teachers, lawyers, and other professionals finally had to resume their studies and jobs in government institutions like schools, and colleges. courts, etc.
Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each
Question 30.
Gandhi’s idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth. In the light of this statement, assess the idea of satyagraha.
Or
How did plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj? Explain. (5)
Answer:
After arriving in India in 1915, Gandhiji successfully organised satyagraha (which he had applied in South Africa), in various parts of India.
- The idea of satyagraha consists of
- The idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
- This idea suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
- Without being aggressive, the Satyagrahi could win the battle.
- One can win the oppressor even by appealing to the conscience.
- Oppressors should be made to see the truth.
- By this struggle, truth was bound to triumph (victory) ultimately.
- Gandhiji believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.
Or
- The plantation workers in Assam had understood the notion of Swaraj in the following ways
- For plantation workers in Assam freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed and it also meant extending or keeping a link with the village from which they had come.
- Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.
- When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers refused to obey their authorities, left the plantations, and headed home.
- They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own village.
Question 31.
Is it right that national development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities? State the utilities of any two public facilities available in India.
Or
Shruti has a development goal of earning enough income to avail facilities. However, Deepti has a goal give her equal respect in
the society as she is an Adivasi. In this context, give examples to prove that there are other important developmental goals other than income. (5)
Answer:
It is right that national development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities. Public facilities are those provided by the government. They may be either highly subsidised or totally free of cost for the people.
The utilities of two public facilities available in India are
- The Public Distribution System (PDS) which provides fair average quality of foodgrains and other essential items to the weaker sections of the population at subsidised price.
- Health care in government hospitals and dispensaríes, which is provided to all at subsidised rates. This includes outpatient as well as hospitalisation facilities.
Or
Besides income, the developmental goals of various categories of people are different from person to person. Some examples of developmental goals other than income are For rich farmers, development means higher support price for crops, cheap labour and subsidised inputs.
For; landless rural labourer, development means more days of work, schools for their children and no social discrimination.
For Adivasi, development means no social discrimination, year-round, school education for children, and PDS shop in his village.
Question 32.
Explain how the increasing number of industries are responsible for exerting pressure on the available freshwater resources of Earth.
Or
Mention any five reasons for water pollution in India. (5)
Answer:
The number of industries are increasing after independence and have become a reason for pressure on existing freshwater resources. Freshwater is almost limited. It is renewable, but over-exploitation and mismanagement of this resource by industries are aggravating the water stress day by day in the following ways
- Heavy industries is a huge source of water pollution, it produces pollutants that are extremely harmful to people and the environment.
- The industries for their energy consumption purpose depend on hydroelectric projects and this electricity is generated through damming the rivers upstream. So, the river almost dries in the lower stream areas.
- Industries dump the chemical waste in the river, lake, etc which then consequently pollute the water and make it toxic. Chemicals from industries also contaminate the groundwater through seepage of industrial wastes. So, the increasing number of industries exert pressure on existing freshwater resources.
Or
The five reasons for water pollution in India are as follows
- Industries discharge various chemicals and hazardous waste into water sources such as lakes, ponds and canals without treating them which causes pollution.
- Modern agricultural practices use chemicals in the form of fertilisers, pesticides, and herbicides which flow into rivers or seep into groundwater which causes pollution
- Human uses water for drinking, preparation of food, bathing for cleaning the house, etc. Most of the used water is drained out through municipal drains and poured into a river or lake causing pollution.
- Exploring for oil and gas under the seabed involves some risks to the marine environment. The consequence of oil spills is water pollution.
- Nuclear power plants, nuclear weapon testing, laboratories where nuclear wastes are discharged into the water sources and pollute the entire water sources of a region.
Question 33.
“Democracy is much superior than any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individuals”. Justify this statement by providing suitable examples.
Or
Can we judge democracy by its outcome? Explain. (5)
Answer:
In our society, every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. In this respect, democratic form of government stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.
The following points support the given statement Often conflict arises among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with equal respect in comparison to others. It is very common in non-democratic countries. But ¡n democracy, respect, and freedom are the basis of it. Democracy throughout the world has recognised this atleast in principle.
Most societies were historically male-dominated. The status of women was not satisfactory. After long struggles by women, democracy throughout the world has recognised equal treatment and respect to women at least in principles, In democracy, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally for them.
Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and opportunity, which is not possible in any non-democratic country.
Value Points
- For getting maximum marks, following value points can be included in the answer
- Mention about equal respect for every one individual in democracy.
- Mention about equal treatment to women in democracy.
- Mention about equal status and opportunity to discriminated castes in democracy.
Or
Democracy should be judged by its outcome because it opens the path of expectations which is one of the criteria for judging any democratic country.
Following points justify the above statement
- The examination procedure of democracy is eternal, as it passes one test, it produces another test.
- It automatically gives rise to expectations as well as complaints by the people when they want to know about the functioning of democracy.
- The fact that people also complaint about democracy indicates the awareness and the ability of people to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.
- It transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.
- Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.
Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each
Question 34.
Read the given extract and answer questions that follow.
Shyamal tells us that every season he needs loans for cultivation on his 1.5 acres of land. Till a few years back, he would borrow
money from the village moneylender at an interest rate of five percent per month (60% per annum). For the last few years, Shyamal has been borrowing from an agricultural trader in the village at an interest rate of three percent per month. At the beginning of the cropping season, the trader supplies the farm inputs on credit, which is to be repaid when the crops are ready for harvest. Besides the interest charge on the loan, the trader also makes the farmers promise to sell the crop to him. In this way, the trader can ensure that the money is repaid promptly. Also, since the crop prices are low after the harvest, the trader is able to make a profit from buying the crop at a low price from the farmers and then selling it later when the price has risen.
We next meet Arun who is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Arun has 7 acres of land. He is one of the few persons in
Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 percent per annum, and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop. He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes in a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them.
(i) When Shyamal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader, he paid a lesser interest rate. Why?
(ii) In the above case/source, which is the most favorable term of credit/loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation?
(iii) State the merits of formal sector of credit. (4)
Answer:
(i) When Shyamal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader in the village, he paid a lesser interest rate because a part of credit was to be paid in kind and other in cash.
(ii) The most favourable terms of credit loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation are specified rate of interest and fixed time period.
(iii) The merits of formal sector of credit are
It provides loans at a fixed rate and terms.
It gives loans not just for profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries and small borrowers, etc.
Question 35.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
On 13th April the infamous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. On that day, a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground
at Jallianwala Bagh. Some came to protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the
annual Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had been imposed. Dyer
entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds. His objects as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of Satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.
As the news of Jallianwala Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many North Indian towns. There were strikes, clashes
with the police, and attacks on government buildings. The government responded with the brutal repression, seeking to humiliate and terrorise people. Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground, crawl on the streets, and do salam to all sahibs; people were flogged and villages (around Gujranwala in Punjab, now in Pakistan) were bombed. Seeing violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement.
(i) Why did General Dyer opened fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh on 13th April 1919? Why Martial Law was imposed in Amritsar?
(ii) What were the effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? (4)
Answer:
General Dyer opened fire on the peaceful gathering at Jailianwala Bagh because Martial Law was imposed in Amritsar instead of which people was gathered there.
Martial Law was imposed in Amritsar because local leaders were picked up from Amritsar and Mahatma Gandhi was not allowed to enter Delhi.
(ii) The effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre were There were strikes, clashes with the police and attacks on the government buildings. Government took repressive measures and forced Satyagrahis to rub their noses on the ground.
Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language.
But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.
States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned state. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi.
According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi-speaking
states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government
responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elite. Promotion of ‘Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
(i) Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Why?
(ii) Evaluate the importance of continuing English as the official language of India.
(iii) State the difference between India and Sri Lanka on the basis of status of the language. (4)
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language because only 40 percent people speak in Hindi. It is improper to give the status of national language to any particular language.
(ii) According to the Constitutions, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. But many non-Hindi-speaking states demanded to continue English as an official language along with Hindi. Some states, especially states in South India, like Tamil Nadu revolted violently against the removal of English. Thus, Central Government took the decision to continue English as official language.
(iii) Sri Lanka declared Sinhala as the only official language whereas in our country, there is no national language.
Section F
Section F consists of Map based questions of 5 marks
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the line
drawn near them. (5)
A. Movement of Indigo Planters
B. Peasant Satyagraha
(b) On the same map of India, locate and label any three among the following with suitable symbols.
(i) Bengaluru Software Technology Park
(ii) Mangaluru Seaport
(iii) Indira Gandhi International Airport
(iv) Kakrapara Nuclear Plant
Answer: