CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 12 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
In early 19th centuary Bengal, which newspaper was started by Rammohun Roy to spread reformist ideas? (1)
(a) Samachar Chandrika
(b) Sambad Kaumudi
(c) Jam-i-Jahan Nama
(d) Bombay Samachar
Answer:
(b) Sambad Kaumudi

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:
(b) 4 3 1 2

Question 3.
A writer of the 19th century claimed “A free press is the most dangerous weapon in the hands of the people”. Who would most likely feel threatened by this idea? (1)
(a) Independent writers and publishers
(b) Conservative monarchs and church authorities
(c) Rural peasants with low literacy
(d) Merchants promoting global trade
Answer:
(b) Conservative monarchs and church authorities

Question 4.
What does the crown of oak leaves shown in the image represent ? (1)

(a) Freedom
(b) Shows readiness for flight
(c) Willingness to make peace
(d) Heroism
Answer:
(d) Heroism

Question 5.
“The print revolution was not just a development in technology; it transformed people’s lives and their relationship to information and authority.” Explain the statement with two examples. (2)
Or
“The invention of the printing press brought about significant changes in the religious sphere in Europe.” Discuss with reference to the Reformation movement.
Answer:
The print revolution reduced the cost of books, increased availability and spread new ideas. It changed people’s relationship with knowledge by creating a reading public, promoting debate and challenging authority. For example, it helped in the spreading of Enlightenment ideas rapidly across Europe.
Or
The invention of printing press brought significant changes in the religious sphere in Europe are as follows.

• Printing press enabled the wide circulation of reformist ideas. Martin Luther’s Ninety-Five Theses spread rapidly, criticising the Catholic Church.
• Pamphlets and translated Bibles made religious texts accessible, encouraging personal interpretation and weakening church authority. This triggered the Protestant Reformation and permanently changed Europe’s religious landscape.

Question 6.
“Various social groups participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement, each interpreting ‘Swaraj’ in their own way.” Support the statement with examples. (3)
Or
“The Salt March was more than a symbolic act against the salt tax.” Justify.
Answer:
Various social groups participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement, each interpreting Swaraj in their own way. For example

• In towns, middle-class students left government schools and colleges; teachers and lawyers resigned and boycotted courts. Merchants picketed liquor shops, rejected foreign cloth, and backed swadeshi, shrinking imports.
• In Awadh, peasants led by Baba Ramchandra opposed exorbitant rents, begar, and arbitrary evictions, demanding revenue reduction and landlord restraint.
• Tribal communities resisted forest restrictions that curbed shifting cultivation and customary rights. Each constituency embraced Gandhiji’s call yet interpreted “Swaraj” through local grievances-tax relief, fair tenancy, or access to forests-sometimes exceeding Congress guidelines.
• Consequently, the movement’s reach broadened, but varied expectations created strains the leadership struggled to regulate and reconcile.

Or
The salt March was more than a symbolic act against the salt tax due to the following reasons.

• The 1930 Salt March, led by Gandhi from Sabarmati to Dandi, challenged the unjust British salt monopoly.
• While symbolic, it mobilised diverse social groups-peasants, tribals, women, and urban workers-into active resistance. The march inspired mass civil disobedience nationwide, including boycotts of foreign cloth and refusal to pay taxes.
• Internationally, it highlighted the Indian struggle for freedom, drawing global media attention. The British response through arrests and repression exposed the moral bankruptcy of colonial rule.

Question 7.
“The development of nationalism in Europe in the nineteenth century was closely linked with liberalism and economic change.” Analyse. (5)
Or
“The unification of Germany was a result of a series of political and military events led by Prussia.” Discuss with examples.
Answer:
The development of nationalism in Europe in the 19th century was closely linked with liberalism and economic change in the following ways.

• Liberalism advanced individual freedom, equality before law and government by consent; economically, it demanded free markets and the abolition of state-improsed restriction on the movement of goods and capital.
• Industrialisation expanded towns, commerce, and a bourgeoisie of industrialists and professionals who pressed for constitutionalism and market integration.
• In the German territories, the Zollverein a customs union was formed in 1834. It abolished internal customs, standardised weights, measures and created a common currency, encouraging trade fostering national sentiment.
• Railways knit regions together, lowering costs and stimulating mobility. Yet, men without property and all women were excluded from political rights.
• Thus, nineteenth-century European nationalism was inseparable from liberal and political aspirations. The material unification produced by technology and market integration, made political unity appear both desirable and economically rational.

Or
The unification of Germany was a result of a series of political and military events led by Prussia in the following ways

• The unification of Germany in 1871 was spearheaded by Prussia under the leadership of Otto von Bismarck, its Chief Minister.
• Bismarck adopted a policy of “blood and iron,” using diplomacy and military strategy to achieve unification.
• Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France which ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification.
• The Austro-Prussian War of 1866, led to Prussian dominance in Northern Germany.
• Finally, the Franco-Prussian War of 1870-71 stirred nationalist feelings, uniting the southern German states with the North.
• The victory over France culminated in the proclamation of the German Empire at Versailles in January 1871, with Prussian King William I as Emperor. Thus, German unification was a calculated political and military achievement under Prussia’s leadership.

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
“We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We also believe that if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.”-The Independence Day Pledge, 26th January, 1930.
(i) What rights do the Indian people believe are inalienable according to the Independence Day Pledge? (1)
(ii) What right do Indian citizens have if the government becomes oppressive and denies them freedom and fundamental rights? (2)
(iii) Why does the Independence Day Pledge state that India must attain Purna Swaraj? (1)
Answer:
(i) The Indian people believe they have the inalienable right to freedom, enjoy the result of their hard work, and have life’s necessities.

(ii) If the government becomes oppressive and denies citizens their freedom and fundamental rights, the Indian people have the right to alter or abolish such a government. This ensures that they can protect their liberty, enjoy the benefits of their labour and access full opportunities for growth and development.

(iii) The Independence Day Pledge states that India must attain Purna Swaraj because partial freedom under British rule denied Indians their rights.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where the Congress Session was held in September 1920. (1)
B. A place associated with the Mill Workers Satyagraha. (1)

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
Which of the following factors directly influences the distribution of population and agriculture in India? (1)
(a) Presence of industries
(b) Availability of natural gas
(c) Fertile alluvial soil
(d) Iron-ore reserves
Answer:
(c) Fertile alluvial soil

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes. (1)

Reserved Forests	?	?
Most valuable for conservation	Protected from further depletion	Forest and wasteland owned by government and individuals
Found in Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand & other states	Almost one-third of total forest area	Found mainly in NE states, parts of Gujarat

(a) Protected forests, Unclassed forests
(b) Community forests, National forests
(c) Unclassed forests, Protected forests
(d) Private forests, Reserved forests
Answer:
(a) Protected forests, Unclassed forests

Question 12.
India’s cotton production 2024-25 is likely to fall by 7.4% from a year ago to 30.2 million bales because of lower area and as excessive rainfall damaged the crop. Lower production will reduce exports from the world’s second biggest cotton producer in the current marketing year. India’s cotton production in 2024-25 is likely to fall mainly because of (1)
(a) Decline in cultivation area and excessive rainfall damage
(b) Rise in exports to global markets
(c) Shift of farmers to sugarcane cultivation
(d) Government restrictions on production
Answer:
(a) Decline in cultuvation area and excessive rainfall damage.

Question 13.
Which of the following statements best describes the classification of industries based on ownership? (1)
(a) Steel Authority of India is a private sector enterprise
(b) Reliance Industries is a joint sector enterprise
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is a public sector industry
(d) Maruti Suzuki is entirely government-owned
Answer:
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is a public sector industry

Question 14.
Which Indian state is known for being the largest producer of coffee? (1)
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

Question 15.
Which of the following options best explains the aim of the Sagarmala Project? (1)
(a) To link all inland rivers with highways
(b) To develop express highways between Delhi and Mumbai
(c) To enhance port connectivity and promote coastal development
(d) To promote tourism in the Himalayan region
Answer:
(c) To enhance port connectivity and promote coastal development

Question 16.
Why are millets and pulses important crops in arid and semi-arid regions? Give two reasons. (2)
Answer:
Millets and pulses are important crops in arid and semi-arid regions due to following reasons

• They require very little water and can survive in poor and sandy soils with low fertility.
• They are also drought-resistant and can withstand high temperatures, ensuring reliable yields even in harsh climates, thus providing food security and nutritional benefits to people living in these areas.

Question 17.
Person R wants to set up a jute-based industry in India. She has been advised to choose West Bengal. Analyse the reasons behind this suggestion. (3)
Or
“Textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy.” Justify this statement.
Answer:
The reason behind choosing West Bengal to set up a jute based industry in India are as follows.

• West Bengal is ideal for a jute-based industry because it is India’s leading producer of raw jute, grown mainly in the fertile alluvial soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
• The region has a humid climate with high temperatures and rainfall, which is favourable for jute cultivation. Abundant water from rivers like the Hooghly supports retting, an essential process in jute production.
• The state also has an established network of jute mills, skilled labour, and transport facilities, including ports for export.
• Proximity to raw material sources reduces transportation costs, while access to large domestic and international markets boosts profitability.
• Historically, Kolkata has been a hub for the jute industry, providing both infrastructure and market linkages, making West Bengal the most suitable choice.

Or
Textile industry occupies a unique position in the India economy because

• It is one of the oldest and most widespread industries, providing the second-largest employment after agriculture.
• It contributes significantly to India’s GDP and export earnings, accounting for a large share of foreign exchange through cotton, silk, wool, and readymade garments.
• The industry links agriculture (raw materials like cotton, silk and jute) with manufacturing and trade, supporting both rural and urban livelihoods. It caters to a vast domestic market and enjoys a strong global presence.
• Additionally, it promotes regional industrial growth and supports many ancillary industries such as dyes, chemicals, and machinery.
• Its labour-intensive nature makes it crucial for inclusive economic development, especially in semi-urban and rural areas.

Question 18.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
In recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of reasons. Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like salinisation of the soil. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana has been started which ensures access to some means of protective irrigation for all agricultural farms in the country, thus bringing much desired rural prosperity.
(i) What are the ecological impacts of dams on river sediment flow? (1)
(ii) How do dams impact the migration of aquatic fauna? (1)
(iii) What are the main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana? (2)
Answer:
(i) Regulating and damming rivers causes poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the reservoir bottom.

(ii) Dams fragment rivers which make it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially for spawning.

(iii) The main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana are To ensure efficient water use in agriculture, expand irrigation coverage (“Har Khet Ko Pani”), improve on-farm water management, promote water-saving technologies like drip and sprinkler systems, enhance crop productivity, and achieve sustainable agriculture through better water resource utilisation.
Ensuring water access on farms, expanding irrigated areas, improving water use efficiency and promoting sustainable water conservation practices.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols. (1)
I. (a) The state which is the largest producer of tea in India.
Or
(b) The state which is the largest producer of coffee in India.
II. Any two of the following. (1 x 2=2)
(i) A major port in Gujarat
(ii) A major wheat growing area in North-West India
(iii) International airport in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Power sharing in modern democracies takes which of the following forms? (1)
I. Among different organs of government (horizontal).
II. Among governments at different levels (vertical).
III. Among different social groups.
IV. Among political parties, pressure groups and movements.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 21.
Two statements are given be low. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. (1)
Assertion (A) The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. Reason (R) This amendment was made to stop defection and discourage elected representatives from switching parties for personal gains.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 22.
Which of the following Indian Prime Minister has been depicted in this picture? (1)

(a) AB Vajpayee
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(d) A B Vajpayee

Question 23.
Parliament passes a law regulating inter-State sale and transport of agricultural produce. A State Assembly passes a law imposing its own permits on produce leaving the State, contrary to the central law. Can the State law prevail? (1)
(a) Yes, because agriculture is in the State List.
(b) No, because inter-State trade and commerce is in the Union List.
(c) Yes, because both must agree on agricultural policy.
(d) No, because it needs Supreme Court approval first.
Answer:
(b) No, because inter state trade and commerce is in the Union List.

Question 24.
Mention any two institutional measures taken in India to reform political parties. (2)
Answer:
Two institutional measures taken in India to reform political parties are as follows

• Inclusion of anti-defection provision that disqualifies legislators who change parties.
• Election Commission directions requiring parties to hold organisational elections and file income-tax returns. These steps increase transparency and internal accountability.

Question 25.
“Caste remains linked to economic status in contemporary India.” Justify the statement. (2)
Answer:
Caste remains linked to economic status in contemporary India due to following reasons.

• Historical Discrimination Lower castes were denied access to education, land and resources for centuries.
• Unequal Opportunities Today they still face limited access to quality education and jobs, keeping them economically disadvantaged compared to upper castes.

Question 26.
‘Democracy is regarded as a legitimate form of government’. Support the statement with suitable arguments. (3)
Answer:
Democracy is regarded as a legitimate form of government due to following reasons.

• Rulers derive authority from citizens through regular, competitive elections and must govern according to constitutional norms and procedures.
• Decisions are taken after deliberation in legislatures and are open to scrutiny, citizens can seek information and challenge processes, ensuring transparency and accountability.
• In a democracy, decisions are taken as per laws, not by arbitrary power.

Question 27.
“A multiparty system suits India.” Explain this statement. (5)
Or
“Coalitions and the rise of State-based parties have strengthened Indian federalism.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
Multiparty system suits India due to following reasons

• Multiparty system suits India because its vast social, linguistic and regional diversity cannot be represented by just one or two parties.
• In a multiparty system, several parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power on their own or in alliance; governments are commonly formed through coalitions.
• This allows diverse interests to find voice and share power, matching India’s federal structure and plural society. By contrast, a one-party system is undemocratic, and two-party systems, while competitive, restrict choice and policy representation.
• Hence, multiparty competition and alliances suit India’s size, complexity and need for accommodation, enabling stable governance through negotiated consensus.

Or
Coalitions and the rise of state-based parties have strengthened Indian federalism in the following ways

• Since the 1990s, coalition governments at the Centre have deepened Indian federalism.
• National parties increasingly required support of State-based parties to form and sustain governments, compelling the Centre to accommodate regional demands and perspectives.
• This reduced central dominance and made States effective partners in national decision-making on development priorities, allocations and legislation.
• The rise of regional parties and coalition politics also discouraged arbitrary dismissal of State Governments. It encouraged broader consultation in inter-state councils and promoted negotiated solutions to contentious issues.
• Overall, these shifts strengthened cooperative federalism and made the Union more responsive to state interests and diversity, thereby improving the federal balance in practice.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
The recent efforts and suggestions in our country to reform political parties and its leaders: The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in Defection in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now, the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the Legislature. This new law has helped bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAS have to accept what the party decide.

The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an Affidavit giving details of his property and against him should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets about one-third, to women candiates. Similarly, there should be a quota for women in the decision making bodies of the party. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money to support their election expenses. This support could be given in kind of petrol, paper, telephone etc. Or it could be given in cash on the basis of the votes secured by the party leaders in the last election.

(i) Explain the meaning of the term ‘Defection’ with reference to the political party system of India. (1)
(ii) Evaluate the significance of an Affidavit which is given by the candidate while contesting elections. (1)
(iii) State any one suggestion which is made to reform the position of women in the Indian political party system. What is the significance of this suggestion? (2)
Answer:
(i) Defection is changing party allegiance (a person’s continued support for a political party) from the party from which a person got elected to a legislative body to a different party.

(ii) Affidavit helps the public to decide the suitable candidate to elect. As per the Supreme’s Court order, candidate has to give the details of his property and criminal case report through an Affidavit.

(iii) An important suggestion to reform the position of women in the Indian Political System is to give at least one-third the number of tickets to women candidates. This suggestion is significant because it ensures greater political participation of women and makes political representation more inclusive and democratic.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Underemployment in urban informal services is most likely when (1)
(a) Workers have no fixed hours and carn below minimum wages
(b) Fewer workers are employed than required
(c) Only skilled workers get jobs
(d) Employees are paid more than their productivity
Answer:
(a) Workers have no fixed hours and each below minimum wages.

Question 30.
What is the key limitation of using literacy rate alone to assess development? Choose the correct option. (1)
(a) It measures only income levels.
(b) It does not reflect quality of education or access to jobs.
(c) It shows all aspects of well-being.
(d) It considers environmental conditions.
Answer:
(b) It does not reflect quality of education or access to jobs.

Question 31.
Which example best illustrates how the tertiary sector supports agriculture? (1)
(a) A farmer sells vegetables directly to neighbours.
(b) A cold storage facility keeps harvested fruits fresh for distant markets.
(c) A fisherman sells catch on the beach.
(d) A dairy farmer consumes all milk produced.
Answer:
(b) A cold storage facility keeps harvested fruits fresh for distant markets.

Question 32.
Which authority supervises the functioning of commercial banks in India? (1)
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Question 33.
Person R explains to classmates how availability of collateral affects access to formal loans. Which justification is most accurate? (1)
(a) Collateral reduces the lender’s risk, making loan approval more likely.
(b) Collateral is optional and rarely used.
(c) Collateral ensures interest-free credit.
(d) Collateral benefits only large borrowers.
Answer:
(a) Collateral reduces the lender’s risk making loan approval more likely.

Question 34.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:
(b) 1 2 3 4

Question 35.
Evaluate the importance of life expectancy as a development indicator. (3)
Answer:
The importance of life expectancy as a development indicator in the following way.

• Life expectancy reflects the average number of years a person is expected to live, indicating overall health conditions in a country. It summarises the effects of nutrition, healthcare access, sanitation, and living standards.
• High life expectancy suggests better medical facilities and healthier living environments, while low values reveal poor public health and vulnerability.
• Unlike income, it captures non-economic aspects of well-being, making it an essential part of composite indicators like the Human Development Index. Thus, it offers a broader perspective on development beyond financial measures alone.

Question 36.
‘Encouraging digital transactions is vital for transparency, but equal access must be ensured.’ Justify this statement. (3)
Answer:
Encouraging digital transactions is vital for transparency but equal access must be ensured in the following ways.

• Digital transactions reduce reliance on cash, help track payments, curb corruption, and make banking faster. They promote transparency and convenience.
• However, without equal access to smartphones, internet, and digital literacy, large sections may be excluded, especially rural poor and elderly. Unequal access widens the gap between those who can use technology and those who cannot.
• To achieve true financial inclusion, digital systems must be supported by affordable internet, training programmes, and infrastructure. This ensures that every citizen benefits from the shift towards a cashless and transparent economy.

Question 37.
Highlight three key ways multinational corporations influence local producers in host countries. (3)
Answer:
The three key ways in which multinational corporations influence local producers in host countries are as follows

• MNCs may partner with local firms in providing investment and technology upgrades. This results in increased efficiency and faster production.
• MNCs may help local producer to expand business by creating ties with international markets.
• They can compete directly, forcing local producers to innovate or risk losing market share. While this can improve product quality and productivity, it may also displace smaller firms unable to match scale or efficiency.

Question 38.
A survey compared two families: one had clean drinking water, proper sanitation, and nutritious food; the other faced water shortages, poor sanitation, and inadequate diet. (5)
Write the main differences between good quality of life and poor quality of life.
Or
Globalisation can create both opportunities and challenges for developing countries. Support this statement with arguments.
Answer:
The main differences between good quality of life and poor quality of life are

Aspect	Good Quality of Life	Poor Quality of Life
Health	Access to clean drinking water, proper sanitation, and nutritious food ensure good health.	Lack of clean water, poor sanitation, and inadequate diet lead to frequent illness.
Living Conditions	Safe and hygienic surroundings, waste management facilities.	Unhygienic surroundings, open drains, unsafe housing.
Education and Work	Better health enables regular school/work attendance.	Ill health reduces productivity and learning capacity.
Overall Well-being	Higher life expectancy, better standard of living.	Lower life expectancy, poor standard of living.
Social Opportunities	Equal access to healthcare, education, and employment opportunities.	Limited access to basic services and fewer opportunities for advancement.

Or
Globalisation can create both opportunities and challenges for developing countries in the following ways.

• Globalisation allows developing countries to access foreign investment, advanced technology, and larger export markets, thereby boosting economic growth.
• It creates jobs in sectors like IT, manufacturing, and services. Exposure to global competition encourages efficiency and innovation.
• However, challenges include loss of market share for small producers due to competition from global giants, potential cultural homogenisation, and vulnerability to global economic fluctuations.
• Globlisation has led to contract-based hiring. This has made workers jobs insecure without social security benefits
• Therefore, while globalisation can accelerate development, policies are needed to protect vulnerable sectors, ensure fair competition, and promote equitable sharing of its benefits across society.