Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 10 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C contains Q.25 to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Section E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each
Question 1.
Who ruled France in 1830s and was forced to flee after unemployment caused workers to revolt on roads? (1)
(a) King Emmanuel II
(b) King William I
(c) King Louis Philippe
(d) King Wilhelm
Answer:
(c) King Louis Philippe
Question 2.
Suppose you are reading an article. The article is based on Gandhi’s idea of satyagraha. But the articles have minor errors. As a keen learner of social science, identify those errors. (1)
I. The idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
II. One can win the oppressor even by appealing to the disharmony. Oppressors should be made to see the truth.
III. This idea suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to
fight the oppressor. With or Without being aggressive, the satyagrahi could win the battle.
Codes
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Answer:
(d) II and III
Question 3.
Following image is a caricature of which personality in the German Reichstag (Parliament) from Figaro, Vienna. Identify. (1)
(a) King Victor Emmanuel II
(b) Otto von Bismarck
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(b) Otto von Bismarck
Question 4.
Why was reading the manuscript not easy in India? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options.
(a) Manuscripts were highly cheap.
(b) Manuscripts were widely spread out.
(c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi.
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
Answer:
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
Question 5.
Arrange the following events in a chronological order.
I. First Malayalam book was printed.
II. Calcutta Supreme Court passed regulations to control press freedom.
III. Fairy Tailes printed by Grime Brother.
IV. Martin Luther wrote Nincty Five Thesis’.
Codes
(a) IV, III, I, II
(b) II, III, I, IV
(c) IV, I, III, II
(d) II, IV, III, I
Answer:
(c) IV, I, III, II
Question 6.
Identify the soil with the help of given clues. (1)
It is acidic in nature.
It is rich in iron.
It is found in hills summits of Eastern, Western Ghats and Assam Hills.
(a) Red soil
(b) Latente soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Alluvial soil
Answer:
(b) Latente soil
Question 7.
Find the connect statement regarding the Joint Forest Management Programme. (1)
(a) Odisha passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management.
(b) This program was initiated in the year 1988.
(c) it is a combined effort of local community with local committees.
(d) Members are entitled to cash benefits from the forests.
Answer:
(d) Members are entitled to cash benefits from the forests.
Question 8.
‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is known as Beware or Dahiya in which among the following Indian states? (1)
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh
Question 9.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) Floodgate dams are built across rivers, so that water flows into the inlet and gets trapped during high tides.
Reason (R) Trapped water flows back via a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Question 10.
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (1)
Statement I In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly demarcated.
Statement II India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective subjects.
Statement III Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
Statement IV India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been developed to the Local Government bodies.
Codes
(a) Only statement I is right
(b) Statement I and II are right
(c) Only statement III is right
(d) Statement III and IV are right
Answer:
(b) Statement I and II are right
Question 11.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) Community Government in Belgium is elected by one language community.
Reason (R) Community Government helped in resolving conflict between different linguistic groups.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Question 12.
Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? (1)
(a) It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
(c) It provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.
(d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.
Answer:
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
Question 13.
Pokharan, the place where India conducted its nuclear tests, lies in Rajasthan. Suppose the Government of Rajasthan was opposed to the Central Government’s nuclear policy, could it prevent the Government of India from conducting the nuclear tests? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) Yet, the State Government could prevent it as ‘Defence’ is a subject of State List.
(b) No, the State Government could not prevent the Central Government from conducting the nuclear tests because ‘Defence’ is the subject of Union List and nuclear tests are the part of the Defence.
(c) Yes, the State Government could prevent it as conducting nuclear tests is a subject of Concurrent List.
(d) No, the State Government could not prevent the Central Government as conducting nuclear tests in any state is legally valid.
Answer:
(b) No, the State Government could not prevent the Central Government from conducting the nuclear tests because ‘Defence’ is the subject of Union List and nuclear tests are the part of the Defence.
Question 14.
In which Year the amendment in the Indian Constitution was made that led the third tier of democracy more effective and powerful? (1)
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1992
Question 15.
What kind of change took place in 1993 in Belgium? Identify the correct option. (1)
(a) The constitutional powers were taken away from Regional Governments and were given to the Central Government.
(b) The Regional Governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the Central government.
(c) The Regional Governments were given constitutional powers that were co-dependent with Central Government.
(d) The constitutional powers were completely taken away from the Central Government and were given to the majority community.
Answer:
(b) The Regional Governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the Central government.
Question 16.
Sunil works in a private company while Anil works as a daily wage earner. Both want a credit of 30000/-. The bank is more likely to give credit to whom?
(a) Sunil as he has regular employment.
(b) Anil as he is more needy.
(c) Neither Sunil nor Anil
(d) Both Sunil and Anil
Answer:
(a) Sunil as he has regular employment.
Question 17.
Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows. The source shows a database of workers employed in different sectors (in millions). (1)
Sector | Unorganised | Organised | Total |
Primary | 200 | 2 | 202 |
Secondary | 50 | 5 | 55 |
Tertiary | 80 | 20 | 100 |
Total | 330 | 27 | 357 |
Total in % | – | – | 100% |
Calculate the percentage of people in an organised sector.
(a) 10%
(b) 9.6%
(c) 7.6%
(d) 8.4%
Answer:
(c) 7.6%
Question 18.
Consider the following statements about GDP of a country (1)
I. Purchase of sugarcane in the making of sugar.
II. Value of silk fabrics for sale in the market.
III. Final value of bakery items.
Which of the following statements should be added to find out GDP?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) None as all are intermediate goods
Answer:
(c) II and III
Question 19.
Which of the following provisions makes NREGA as the Right to Work? (1)
(a) Increase in land productivity has been given preference.
(b) If the government fails to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowance.
(c) Thu act has been spread to all the districts in the country.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) If te government fails to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowance.
Question 20.
Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector? (1)
(a) Goods arc produced by exploiting natural resources.
(b) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
(c) Natural products arc changed through manufacturing.
(d) It generates services rather than goods.
Answer:
(c) Natural products arc changed through manufacturing.
Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each
Question 21.
State the order passed by the Supreme Court to reform the Election Commission of India. (2)
Answer:
The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of information available to the public. But there is no system of check if the information given by the candidates is true.
Question 22.
What do you mean by the barter system of exchange? (2)
Answer:
Before the use of money, people followed a bartef system of exchange. In this system, goods are directly exchanged (without use of money) between two or more people who agree to exchange each other’s goods. For example, farmers exchanging wheat for shoes and vice versa. In this case, the farmer and shoe manufacturer should be in need of each others goods.
This is called double coincidence of wants.
Question 23.
Mention two factors responsible for the location of jute mills in the Hugh basin.(2)
Or
Give two reasons for shifting sugar industry from North to South India. (2)
Answer:
Factors responsible for location of jute mills in the Hugh Basin are
- Inexpensive water transport, supported by a good network of railways and roadways.
- Availability of cheap ‘labour from nearby areas.
Or
Reasons for shifting of sugar industry from North to South India are
- The sucrose content of sugarcane grown is higher in South India i.e., Peninsular India.
- Thus, more sugar can be extracted from the same amount of sugarcane.
- The crushing season is longer in the Peninsular India, as the summers are less hotter than the North India.
Question 24.
Study the map thoroughly and state any one historical incident that happened in the marked area during the Indian freedom struggle. (2)
Answer:
Amritsar has been associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident, The incident happened on 13th April, 1919, in which British troops fired on a large crowd of unarmed Indians in an open space known as the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in the Punjab region (now in Punjab state) of India.
Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each
Question 25.
Table showing study of employment and income in Ahmedabad are as follows. (1+2)
Sector | Workers Employed | Income Generated |
Organised | 400000 | ₹ 32000 million |
Unorganised | 1100000 | ₹ 28000 million |
Total | 1500000 | ₹ 60000 million |
(i) In the table given above, we can analyse that in the unorganised sector more workers are employed as compared to organised sector. But still, the income generated by the unorganised sector is far behind the organised sector. What is the reason behind it?
(ii) What kind of ways should be thought for employment in the city?
Answer:
(i) Generally, workers belonging to the unorganised sector are given low wages as compared to organised sectors. This is the reason why the total income of the unorganised sector is far behind the total income of the organised sector,
(ii) The ways of generating more employment are To set up industries that process vegetables an agricultural produce like potatoes, rice, wheat, fruits, etc which can be sold in outside markets.
To promote and locate industries and service in outside of the city where a large number people can get employment.
Question 26.
What were the results of the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka? (3)
Or
Describe the ways in which power can be shared among governments at different levels. (3)
Answer:
The results of the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka were as follows
- The distrust between the Sinhalese and the Tams led to widespread conflict and soon turned into a Civil War.
- Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees. Many people lost their livelihoods.
- The Civil War caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic life of the country.
- Power can be shared among governments at different levels in the following ways
- Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. None of these
- organs can exercise unlimited power as each organ checks the others.
In a federal form of government power can be divided between the Central Government and the State Government as well as at the Local Government level.
Power may be shared among different social groups. such as religious and linguistic groups. Power-sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and social movements control or influence those in power.
Question 27.
Why resource planning is essential for India? Explain. (3)
Answer:
Resource planning is essential in India as resources are limited and unevenly distributed over the country. Planning will help in reducing wastage as well as taking care of the requirements of future generations An example of uneven distribution of resources is Arunachal Pradesh which has abundance of water resources but lacks infrastructural development to utilise the water resources. Irrational consumption and over utilisation of resources leads to socioeconomic and environmental problems like in Punjab, waterlogging has increased salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
Question 28.
Give any two merits and demerits of one party system. (3)
Answer:
Merits of one-party system are
- Strong and Stable Government Since thece is no opposition party, the government is strong and cannot be removed of voted out of power
- Less Expensive Since there is only one-party and one candidate of the party, not much money is spent on the election.
Demerits of one-party system are
- Undemocratic Government can become dictatorial.
- No Choice It gives no choice to the voters.
Question 29.
What were the beliefs of plantation workers in Assam about the notion of Swaraj? Explain. (3)
Answer:
The plantation workers in Assam had understood the notion of Swaraj in the following ways
For plantation workers in Assarn, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859. plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without
permission.
Swaraj for plantation workers meant retaining a link to the village from where they had come. When plantation workers heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement thousands of workers refused to obey their authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
They believed that Gandhi Raj was corning and everyone would be given land in their own village. The plantation worker, however never, reached their destination as they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.
Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each
Question 30.
What was the political scenario of India from 1922 to 1930? (5)
Or
Write a brief note about the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army. (5)
Answer:
The political scenario of India from 1922 to 1930 are CR Das and s1tlaI Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics. But, younger leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose pressed for more radical mass agitation and for full independence.
The demand for agricultural goods fell and exports declined, peasants found it difficult to sell their harvests and pay their revenue. By 1930, the countryside was in turmoil. Against this background, the new government in Britain constituted a Statutory Commission under Sir John Simon. The problem was that the commission did not have a single Indian member. They were all British. Lala Lajpat Rai was assaulted by the British police during a peaceful demonstration against the Simon Commission. It was greeted with the slogan Go Back Simon’.
In an effort to convince Indians, the Viceroy Lord Irwin announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future Constitution. This did not satisfy the Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress. led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose, became more assertive.
In December 1929, under the Presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Puma Swaraj’ or full independence for India.
Or
In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Feroz Shah Kotla ground in Delhi. Amongst its leaders were Shagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh. Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through non-violence. HSRA was a manifestation of this ideology. In a series of dramatic actions in different parts of India, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power.
In April 1929. Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly In the same year, there was an attempt to blow up the train that Lord Irwin was travelling in. Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed by the colonial government. During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society. ‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birthright of
all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society. To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution. Inquilab Zindabad!’.
Question 31.
Explain five political outcomes of democracy. (5)
Or
Should democracy be judged by its outcome? Explain. (5)
Answer:
The five political outcomes of democracy are as follows
- The most basic outcome of democracy is that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
- Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
- A democratic government may take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision. But because it follows procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. So. the cost of time that democracy pays is worth it.
- Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as transparency.
- A democratic government is a legitimate government as it is the people’s own government.
Or
Democracy should be judged by its outcome because it opens the path of expectations which is one of the criteria for judging any democratic country.
Following points justify the above statement
- The examination procedure of democracy is eternal, it passes one test, it produces another test.
- It automatically gives rise to expectations as well as complaints by the people when they want to know about the functioning of democracy.
- The fact that people also complaint about democracy indicates the awareness and the ability of people to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.
- It transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.
- Most individuals today beiieve that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.
Question 32.
How nuclear energy is expected to play an important role in India? Give arguments to support this statement. (5)
Or
How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestions. (3+2)
Answer:
Nuclear energy is expected to play an important role in India due to the following reasons
- India has limited reserves of coal and petroleum. Nuclear energy minerals like Thorium is found in plenty in India.
- Hence, nuclear energy can compensate for deficiency of fossil fuels.
- Nuclear power stations can be established easily and conveniently in those areas where other sources are not available.
- Nuclear power releases tremendous amounts of energy. India can utilise this energy for peaceful purposes such as generation of electricity that can be used to run machines in industries.
- Nuclear energy is a non-conventional source of energy. After the initial expenses, it becomes very economical.
Question 33.
Bank plays a significant in the economy of India. Analyse and explain the statement in a elaborative manner. (3+2)
Or
Briefly describe the functions of Reserve Bank of India. (5)
Answer:
Banks plays an important role in the economy of India in the following ways
(i) Provide Deposits Bank accept the deposits and also pay an amount as interest on the deposits. In this way, people’s money is safe with the banks and it earns an amount as interest, People also have the provision to withdraw the money as and when they
require, Since, the deposits in the bank account can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.
(ii) Provide Loans Bank keep only a small portion of their deposits as cash with themselves Banks use the major position of the deposits to give loans. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people, In this way, banks provide credit to set up industries and in agriculture. This generates more employment and raises income thereby bringing economic development.
Or
The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India Functions of Reserve Bank of India are as follows The Reserve Bank of India monitors that the banks actually maintain the cash balance and do not give all the deposits as loans. The Reserve Bank of india ensures that the banks given loans not just to profit-making businesses and rich traders, but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small borrowers, etc. Periodically, banks have to submit information to the Reserve Bank of India on how much they are lending, to whom, etc. The rate of interest charged on loans given by the banks is decided by the Reserve Bank. In this way, the RBI keeps a check on all the activities of banks and checks the flow of credit also.
Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each
Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
What we know today as Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, Duchies and Cantons whose ruler had their autonomous territories. Eastern and Central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived diverse peoples. They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a common culture. Often, they even spoke different languages and belonged to different ethnic groups.
The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine regions-the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland as well as Bohemia, where the aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking. It also included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia.
In Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of dialects. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. Besides these three dominant groups, there also lived within the boundaries of the empire, a mass of subject peasant peoples Bohemians and Slovaks to the North, Slovenes in Camiola, Croasts to the South and Roumans to the East in Transylvania.
Such differences did not easily promote sense of political unity. The only tie bind in these diverse groups together was common allegiance to the emperor.
(i) What was the reason behind Germany, Italy and Switzerland not being a nation-state? (1)
(ii) Were there any nation-states in Europe till the mid-l8th century. How? (2)
(iii) Describe the Habsburg Empire. (1)
Answer:
(i) The reason behind Germany, Italy and Switzerland not being a nation-state is that these countries were divided into Kingdoms, Duchies and Cantons, whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
(ii) Yes, they were nation-states in Europe till the mid-18th century. Eastern and Central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of diverse peoples. They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a common culture.
(iii) The Habsburg Empire ruled over Austria-Hungary was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine regions, the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland as well as Bohemia. Its also included the provinces of Lombardy and
Venetia.
Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Another way of classifying economic activities in sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is responsible for the
delivery of services. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services. In the private
sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or companies.
Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO)
or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL.) arc privately owned. Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn
profits. To get such services we have to pay money to these individuals and companies.
The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits. Governments raise money through taxes and other ways to meet
expenses on the services rendered by it. Modern-day governments spend on a whole range of activities. There are several things
needed by the society as a whole but which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost
(i) The bifurcation into the public and private sector is on what basis? (1)
(ii) State one reason each as to why railways and post offices are counted in the public sector. (1)
(iii) State two reasons why the public sector is needed in a country like India. (2)
Answer:
(i) The education into the public and private sector is based on who owns the assets and is responsible for delivery of services.
(ii) Railways and post offices are counted in the public sector due to railways being owned by the government and not by any private individual. Government is responsible for the delivery of various services through post offices.
(iii) Public sector is needed in India due to Public sector spends in different activities that are needed by the society which the private sector cannot provide Private sector will not provide services at reasonable price, so public sector is needed.
Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire Northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the Eastern coastal plains, particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles
appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. neat’ the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age.
According to their age, alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The Bangar soil has higher concentration of Kanker nodules than the Khadar soil. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the Bangar.
(i) Why alluvial soil requires least water? What is the reason behind high fertility of alluvial soil? (1+1)
(ii) In India, where can one find alluvial soil? Which Indian state has largest deposits of alluvial soil? (2)
Answer:
(i) Alluvial soil is one of the best soil, requiring the ‘east water due to its high porosity Alluvial soil is extremely fertile because it is formed by the sediments transported by rivers and is a mixture of sand, clay and silt. It has a loamy texture and it is rich in humus. It has good water retention and water-absorbing capacity.
(ii) Alluvial soil is found in the regions of Indo-Gangetic plains, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar. West Bengal, Assam as well as in the Northern parts of Gujarat. Uttar Pradesh has the highest deposit of alluvial soil in India.
Secti0n F
Section F consists of Map based question of 5 marks
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them. (2)
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in December 1920.
B. The place where the Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha was conducted.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate any three features of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) An airport in West Bengal
(ii) Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
(iii) Thiruvananthapuram Software Technology Park
(iv) Tuticorin Port
Answer: